International Law | Law GAT MCQs Test 2

1. Question 1 of 50

   Piracy under international law is traditionally subject to which type of jurisdiction?

   A Passive personality jurisdiction only B Nationality jurisdiction only C Universal jurisdiction D Territorial jurisdiction only
2. Question 2 of 50

   Obligations owed by a state to the international community as a whole are called?

   A Reciprocal obligations B Jus cogens norms C Bilateral obligations D Erga omnes obligations
3. Question 3 of 50

   The principle of complementarity under the Rome Statute means the ICC acts when?

   A National courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute B Only upon Security Council referral C Only for crimes committed by non-state actors D Always, regardless of domestic proceedings
4. Question 4 of 50

   The doctrine 'Responsibility to Protect' (R2P) was endorsed at the UN in which year?

   A 1999 B 2005 C 1994 D 2011
5. Question 5 of 50

   Under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, the premises of a mission are deemed to be?

   A Subject to search with consent B Inviolable C Extraterritorial D Subject to host state entry with notice
6. Question 6 of 50

   Which of the following is NOT one of the original core crimes under the Rome Statute?

   A Genocide B Crimes against humanity C Terrorism D War crimes
7. Question 7 of 50

   Can the sending state waive the immunity of its diplomat?

   A Only the UN can waive it B No, immunity is absolute C Yes, expressly D Only the receiving state can waive it
8. Question 8 of 50

   The doctrine of 'self-defence' under Article 51 of the UN Charter is available against what?

   A Any economic sanction B Any verbal threat C Diplomatic protest D An armed attack
9. Question 9 of 50

   The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties was adopted in which year?

   A 1958 B 1982 C 1961 D 1969
10. Question 10 of 50

    The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in which year?

    A 1969 B 1961 C 1963 D 1982
11. Question 11 of 50

    Anticipatory self-defence, as a contested doctrine, allows a state to act against what kind of threat?

    A A purely hypothetical future threat B An imminent armed attack C A past resolved dispute D An economic boycott
12. Question 12 of 50

    The Geneva Conventions on the law of the sea (four conventions) were adopted in which year?

    A 1982 B 1958 C 1969 D 1961
13. Question 13 of 50

    Which UN body is primarily responsible for refugee protection?

    A UNESCO B UNICEF C UNDP D UNHCR
14. Question 14 of 50

    Land or territory belonging to no one, capable of acquisition by occupation, is called?

    A Mandate territory B Condominium C Terra nullius D Res communis
15. Question 15 of 50

    How many core crimes fall under the ICC's jurisdiction (originally)?

    A Three B Five C Six D Four
16. Question 16 of 50

    The principle allowing jurisdiction based on harm to the prosecuting state's nationals abroad is called?

    A Nationality principle B Territorial principle C Passive personality principle D Protective principle
17. Question 17 of 50

    The principle allowing jurisdiction over acts threatening a state's security, even committed abroad, is the?

    A Protective principle B Passive personality principle C Territoriality principle D Universality principle
18. Question 18 of 50

    Humanitarian intervention without Security Council authorization is generally regarded under international law as?

    A Fully legal under customary law B Legally contested/controversial C Required under the UN Charter D Expressly authorized by Article 2(4)
19. Question 19 of 50

    The Stimson Doctrine of 1932 concerned non-recognition of territorial changes brought about by what means?

    A Plebiscite B Force C Cession D Treaty
20. Question 20 of 50

    The UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) was adopted in which year?

    A 1982 B 1958 C 1969 D 1994
21. Question 21 of 50

    Which doctrine holds that recognition of a new government is a matter of fact and not a judgment on legitimacy?

    A Stimson Doctrine B Hallstein Doctrine C Estrada Doctrine D Tobar Doctrine
22. Question 22 of 50

    The principle allowing a state to exercise jurisdiction over its nationals abroad is called?

    A Universality principle B Territorial principle C Nationality principle D Protective principle
23. Question 23 of 50

    Under UNCLOS, the Exclusive Economic Zone extends to how many nautical miles?

    A 12 nautical miles B 350 nautical miles C 24 nautical miles D 200 nautical miles
24. Question 24 of 50

    The principle of universal jurisdiction is most commonly invoked for which category of crimes?

    A International crimes such as genocide and piracy B Civil contract disputes C Domestic theft D Tax evasion
25. Question 25 of 50

    Under UNCLOS, the territorial sea extends to how many nautical miles?

    A 24 nautical miles B 6 nautical miles C 200 nautical miles D 12 nautical miles
26. Question 26 of 50

    The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations was adopted in which year?

    A 1969 B 1961 C 1963 D 1975
27. Question 27 of 50

    Collective self-defence under Article 51 requires what from the attacked state?

    A A request or consent from the victim state B Security Council pre-authorization C Unilateral action by any third state D General Assembly resolution
28. Question 28 of 50

    Which doctrine refuses recognition to governments that come to power through unconstitutional means?

    A Monroe Doctrine B Tobar Doctrine C Stimson Doctrine D Estrada Doctrine
29. Question 29 of 50

    The Montevideo Convention of 1933 is primarily associated with which subject?

    A Law of the sea B Criteria for statehood C Diplomatic immunity D Law of treaties
30. Question 30 of 50

    Diplomatic immunity primarily derives its rationale from which theory?

    A Functional necessity B Reciprocity alone C Extraterritoriality D Representative character alone
31. Question 31 of 50

    A person declared 'persona non grata' by a receiving state is typically?

    A A refugee seeking asylum B An accredited international judge C A head of state D A diplomat asked to leave the country
32. Question 32 of 50

    Which doctrine governs sovereign immunity of states from foreign jurisdiction?

    A Universal jurisdiction B Diplomatic immunity C Act of state doctrine D State immunity
33. Question 33 of 50

    The principle that existing administrative boundaries become international boundaries upon independence is?

    A Uti possidetis B Terra nullius C Rebus sic stantibus D Estoppel
34. Question 34 of 50

    A diplomat enjoys immunity from the criminal jurisdiction of which state?

    A The receiving state B The sending state C Any third state D International Criminal Court only
35. Question 35 of 50

    The recognition theory that statehood exists independent of recognition by other states is the?

    A Declaratory theory B Estrada doctrine C Effective control theory D Constitutive theory
36. Question 36 of 50

    The principle of non-refoulement primarily relates to which area of international law?

    A Diplomatic law B Refugee law C Treaty law D Law of the sea
37. Question 37 of 50

    The recognition theory holding that a state only becomes an international legal person upon recognition is?

    A Constitutive theory B Tobar doctrine C Declaratory theory D Estrada doctrine
38. Question 38 of 50

    Where is the seat of the International Criminal Court?

    A Geneva B The Hague C Rome D New York
39. Question 39 of 50

    The International Criminal Court was established by which instrument?

    A UN Charter B Geneva Conventions C Rome Statute D Vienna Convention
40. Question 40 of 50

    Peremptory norms of international law from which no derogation is permitted are called?

    A Jus cogens B Opinio juris C Jus dispositivum D Lex specialis
41. Question 41 of 50

    The contiguous zone under UNCLOS extends up to how many nautical miles from the baseline?

    A 24 nautical miles B 350 nautical miles C 200 nautical miles D 12 nautical miles
42. Question 42 of 50

    In which year was the Rome Statute of the ICC adopted?

    A 1994 B 1998 C 1945 D 2002
43. Question 43 of 50

    In which year did the Rome Statute enter into force?

    A 2002 B 1998 C 2000 D 2005
44. Question 44 of 50

    The 1951 Refugee Convention defines a refugee primarily based on what?

    A Natural disaster displacement B Well-founded fear of persecution C Economic hardship D Voluntary migration
45. Question 45 of 50

    Under the Montevideo criteria, which of the following is NOT required for statehood?

    A Defined territory B Capacity to enter relations with other states C Permanent population D Recognition by the UN
46. Question 46 of 50

    The psychological element required to establish customary international law is called?

    A Erga omnes B Jus cogens C Pacta sunt servanda D Opinio juris
47. Question 47 of 50

    Which body can refer situations to the ICC even regarding non-member states?

    A ECOSOC B UN Security Council C General Assembly D ICJ
48. Question 48 of 50

    Pakistan's status with respect to the Rome Statute of the ICC is best described as?

    A Founding member B Ratified in 2002 C Not a party (non-signatory) D Signed but withdrew
49. Question 49 of 50

    The legal principle by which a state's official acts cannot be questioned in another state's courts is called?

    A Act of State Doctrine B Pacta tertiis C Non-intervention D Sovereign Equality
50. Question 50 of 50

    Consular officials, compared to diplomats, generally enjoy what kind of immunity?

    A Immunity equal to heads of state B Absolute immunity C No immunity D Functional (limited) immunity

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