Law GAT Mock Test 01

1. Question 1 of 100

   Section 378 defines 'theft' as the dishonest taking of any movable property, out of the possession of any person, without that person's:

   A Consent B Knowledge only, regardless of consent C Registration of the property D Prior conviction
2. Question 2 of 100

   Article 199 is generally described as the source of which jurisdiction at the provincial level?

   A Advisory jurisdiction B Pakistan's writ jurisdiction C Appellate criminal jurisdiction only D Original jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes
3. Question 3 of 100

   The burden of proof as to any particular fact lies on the person who wishes the Court to believe in its existence, unless it is provided by law that the proof of that fact shall lie on any:

   A Witness only B Public officer only C Particular person D Expert only
4. Question 4 of 100

   What was the decision of the Sindh Chief Court before the matter reached the Federal Court?

   A It declared martial law valid B It dismissed the petition C It referred the matter to the Privy Council D It ruled in favour of Tamizuddin Khan, declaring the dissolution illegal
5. Question 5 of 100

   Article 25(1) guarantees that all citizens are:

   A Entitled to free healthcare B Guaranteed government employment C Entitled to a minimum wage D Equal before law and entitled to equal protection of law
6. Question 6 of 100

   The Court may presume that maps or plans purporting to be made by the authority of the Government were so made, and are:

   A Accurate B Irrelevant C Only privileged communications D Inaccurate unless proved otherwise
7. Question 7 of 100

   No particular number of witnesses is, in the absence of any specific statutory provision otherwise, required for the proof of any fact, since evidence is to be:

   A Counted and not weighed B Ignored if uncorroborated C Weighed and not merely counted D Rejected if given by a single witness
8. Question 8 of 100

   Which section of the CPC codifies the doctrine of res sub judice (stay of suit)?

   A Section 9 B Section 10 C Section 12 D Section 11
9. Question 9 of 100

   The power under Section 54 to arrest without a warrant applies principally to offences that are:

   A Exclusively summons-cases B Exclusively bailable C Cognizable in nature D Exclusively non-cognizable
10. Question 10 of 100

    Under the now-omitted Article 191A(1) (as it stood under the 26th Amendment before omission), Constitutional Benches were to be nominated by:

    A Provincial Bar Councils B The President directly C The Chief Justice alone D The Judicial Commission of Pakistan, from time to time
11. Question 11 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who is a 'Judgment-debtor'?

    A Any person named in a plaint, regardless of the decree B Only a person who has admitted liability in writing C Any person against whom a decree has been passed, or an order capable of execution has been made D Only the defendant, regardless of the outcome of the suit
12. Question 12 of 100

    An appellate court, in an appeal against conviction, may also examine the propriety of the:

    A Complainant's personal character only, with no bearing on sentence B Original FIR's registration number only C Investigating officer's promotion prospects D Sentence imposed, in addition to the finding of guilt
13. Question 13 of 100

    A judicial confession recorded by a Magistrate in accordance with law carries a presumption of:

    A Automatic falsity B Voluntariness, if properly recorded following the required cautions C Inadmissibility D Irrelevance
14. Question 14 of 100

    What does Order VII of the CPC specifically deal with?

    A The plaint B The written statement C Parties to suits D Appeals from orders
15. Question 15 of 100

    What does Section 151 CPC preserve?

    A The inherent powers of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court B The power to reduce court fees C The court's power to levy new taxes D The right of a party to change advocates mid-trial
16. Question 16 of 100

    Henry Maine's famous statement about the movement of progressive societies is: the movement has been from Status to:

    A Custom B Precedent C Contract D Command
17. Question 17 of 100

    The Dosso case originally arose from a conviction under which law?

    A Hudood Ordinance B Anti-Terrorism Act C Frontier Crimes Regulation (FCR) 1901 D Pakistan Penal Code 1860
18. Question 18 of 100

    Which rule prohibits an advocate from employing another person to solicit professional employment on his behalf?

    A Rule 136 B Rule 138 C Rule 135 D Rule 148
19. Question 19 of 100

    A conditional order under Section 133 may be passed by a Magistrate acting upon:

    A A police report or other information, or upon his own view of the situation B A private civil plaint exclusively C A Presidential reference exclusively D An appellate court's direction exclusively
20. Question 20 of 100

    Under Rule 174-B, what is the maximum permitted size for an advocate's name board displayed outside his office?

    A 5 feet by 5 feet B 1½ feet by 2 feet C 3 feet by 4 feet D There is no size restriction
21. Question 21 of 100

    Article 50 states that Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) consists of the President and which two Houses?

    A The National Assembly and the Judicial Commission B The National Assembly and the Senate C The Senate and the Federal Cabinet D The National Assembly and the Provincial Assembly
22. Question 22 of 100

    Article 16 protects the right of citizens to:

    A Bear arms for self-defence B Hold public meetings without prior notice C Assemble peacefully and without arms D Form trade unions
23. Question 23 of 100

    Bentham distinguished between 'expository' jurisprudence and:

    A Historical jurisprudence B Sociological jurisprudence C Comparative jurisprudence D Censorial jurisprudence
24. Question 24 of 100

    The existence of any state of things at any time is treated as relevant when the question is whether it continued to exist at a subsequent time, and it is generally shown that such a state of things:

    A Is of an ordinarily permanent character B Was recorded in a public document C Was admitted by the opposite party D Never exists in law
25. Question 25 of 100

    Hart's most famous work is titled:

    A The Province of Jurisprudence Determined B Law in the Making C The Pure Theory of Law D The Concept of Law
26. Question 26 of 100

    A dying declaration may be relied upon even if the declarant did not have a full opportunity to be cross-examined, because the underlying justification for admitting it is the special reliability attributed to statements made in expectation or circumstances of:

    A Death B Ordinary business dealings C A civil dispute D Financial loss
27. Question 27 of 100

    What common purpose links Sections 96, 104, and 115 of the CPC, despite governing different categories of challenge?

    A All three concern only the execution of decrees B All three provide mechanisms — appeal from decrees, appeal from orders, and revision, respectively — by which a higher court may review a lower court's decision C All three are limited to disputes over court fees D All three apply exclusively to criminal proceedings
28. Question 28 of 100

    Which chapter of the UN Charter deals with the Security Council?

    A Chapter VI B Chapter V C Chapter IV D Chapter VII
29. Question 29 of 100

    Facts which are the cause or effect of relevant facts, immediately or otherwise, are treated as:

    A Only relevant with leave of the High Court B Privileged C Irrelevant D Relevant
30. Question 30 of 100

    Under Section 19 CPC, if a wrong to the person or movable property occurs in one jurisdiction but the defendant resides in another, where may the plaintiff sue?

    A Only in the plaintiff's home jurisdiction B Only where the defendant resides C At the plaintiff's option, in either jurisdiction D Only where the wrong occurred
31. Question 31 of 100

    Qiyas cannot be applied to matters that are purely:

    A Commercial and contractual B Related to modern inventions C Related to civil transactions generally D Devotional/ritual (Ta'abbudi) and fixed by specific textual injunction without a discernible rationale
32. Question 32 of 100

    Under Rule 155, for what purpose alone should lawsuits with clients over fees generally be resorted to?

    A To maximise recovery of unpaid fees B To establish a legal precedent C To prevent injustice, imposition, or fraud D To deter future clients from disputing fees
33. Question 33 of 100

    Section 96 provides that nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the:

    A Right to bail B Right to remain silent C Right of appeal D Right of private defence
34. Question 34 of 100

    Under Order XLI, what happens generally where an appeal is found to be incompetent, but the same grievance could properly be raised by way of revision?

    A Courts have, in appropriate cases, treated an incompetent appeal as a revision and vice versa, to serve the interests of justice B The appellant is automatically barred from any further recourse C The matter must always be dismissed outright with no alternative remedy D The matter must be restarted as an entirely new suit
35. Question 35 of 100

    Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

    A Russia B China C Germany D France
36. Question 36 of 100

    Under Article 51(3), as it currently stands, how many seats in the National Assembly are reserved for women?

    A Thirty-three B Sixty C Seventy D Fifty
37. Question 37 of 100

    Section 205 permits a Magistrate to dispense with the personal attendance of the accused in certain summons-cases, allowing him to appear through a:

    A Police officer B Pleader (advocate) C Complainant D Public Prosecutor exclusively, with no role for defence counsel
38. Question 38 of 100

    Refusal or failure to comply with a summons requiring production of a document under Chapter VII may result in the issuance of a:

    A Automatic conviction with no further process B Suspension of all proceedings C Search-warrant to seize the document D Immediate dismissal of the case
39. Question 39 of 100

    Where a document is executed in several parts, each part is:

    A Only relevant with expert opinion B Primary evidence of the document C Secondary evidence of the whole D Irrelevant unless registered
40. Question 40 of 100

    The State vs. Dosso and Others is reported at:

    A PLD 1955 F.C. 240 B PLD 1958 S.C. 533 C PLD 1977 S.C. 657 D PLD 1972 S.C. 139
41. Question 41 of 100

    Under Order IX, what is the general effect if the court is satisfied that a party's non-appearance was caused by circumstances such as a death in the family?

    A The suit must be dismissed regardless of the reason for absence B The matter must be referred to the High Court for a ruling on the excuse C The court may decline to dismiss the suit on that ground, treating the absence as excused D The opposing party automatically wins the suit outright
42. Question 42 of 100

    A fact which is the occasion, cause or effect of a fact in issue or relevant fact is generally treated as:

    A Privileged B Irrelevant C Inadmissible without corroboration D Relevant
43. Question 43 of 100

    An advocate is approached by a stranger to file a criminal complaint against a third party, without having been consulted about the underlying matter beforehand. What does Rule 151 generally require?

    A A minimum retainer fee before proceeding B Nothing; any advocate may file any complaint at will C That the advocate not advise commencement of prosecution unless he has been properly consulted in reference to the matter, absent a special relation making it proper D Approval from the Bar Council before filing
44. Question 44 of 100

    The rule that a document required by law to be attested cannot be used as evidence unless an attesting witness has been called is subject to the exception that it does not apply if the execution is:

    A Only proved by a private witness B Admitted by the party executing it C Disputed by both parties D Only proved by a public officer
45. Question 45 of 100

    Where facts referred to in a document are proved to be equally applicable to several distinct sets of circumstances, evidence may be given to show which one was actually meant, since otherwise the document would be:

    A Void for repugnancy without such evidence being permitted B Treated as a public document C Automatically presumed genuine D Conclusively proved against the maker
46. Question 46 of 100

    Which Constitution was abrogated as a direct consequence of the 1958 martial law validated in Dosso's case?

    A The Government of India Act 1935 B The Constitution of 1962 C The Constitution of 1956 D The Constitution of 1973
47. Question 47 of 100

    The Nusrat Bhutto case is often criticized for setting which precedent in Pakistan's constitutional history?

    A Strengthening parliamentary democracy permanently B Ending the role of the army in politics C Establishing an independent Election Commission D Judicial legitimization of military coups through the necessity doctrine
48. Question 48 of 100

    An advocate wants to negotiate a settlement directly with the opposing party, who is represented by counsel, without informing that counsel. Under the Bar Council Rules, is this permissible?

    A Yes, provided the communication is brief B Yes, settlement negotiations are always exempt from this restriction C No — Rule 137 prohibits communicating about a matter in controversy with a represented party without that party's advocate's consent D Yes, as long as it is done in writing
49. Question 49 of 100

    A key practical difficulty in establishing Ijma in later centuries is:

    A The absence of any qualified jurists at all B Its being identical to Qiyas C The difficulty of ascertaining agreement among all qualified Mujtahids worldwide D The prohibition of Ijma by the Quran
50. Question 50 of 100

    Under Order IX, must notice be given to the opposite party before a decree is set aside on an application under this Order?

    A No, the court may act entirely on its own motion B Only in suits against the government C Only if the original decree exceeded a certain value D Yes, no decree shall be set aside without notice to the opposite party
51. Question 51 of 100

    Under Order XLI, Rule 23, what power does an appellate court have if it finds that a suit was wrongly disposed of on a preliminary point?

    A Only to dismiss the appeal outright B To remand the case for a fresh decision on the merits C None; it must decide the case itself without further evidence D Only to refer the matter to arbitration
52. Question 52 of 100

    Non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of how many years?

    A Three years B One year C Two years D Four years
53. Question 53 of 100

    Under Rule 175(2), what happens if an advocate violates the prohibition on joining another profession, business, service, or vocation?

    A It entails consequences as provided in Rule 108-O B A fine payable directly to the opposing party C No consequence unless a client complains D Automatic and immediate disbarment with no process
54. Question 54 of 100

    Under Article 2, a fact is said to be 'proved' when, after considering the matters before it, the Court believes it to exist or considers its existence so probable that a prudent man ought, under the circumstances, to act upon the supposition that it:

    A Exists B Is irrelevant C Is inadmissible D Does not exist
55. Question 55 of 100

    Under Rule 135, may an advocate solicit professional employment by advertisement or any other means?

    A Yes, but only in print media B No C Yes, but only once annually D Yes, without restriction
56. Question 56 of 100

    Under Article 196, a High Court judge holds office until he attains the age of:

    A Sixty years B Sixty-two years C Sixty-five years D Sixty-eight years
57. Question 57 of 100

    Facts of which the Court will take judicial notice need not be:

    A Cross-examined upon B Proved C Disproved D Admitted separately
58. Question 58 of 100

    Section 320 defines 'qatl-bis-sabab' as causing death of a person by doing any unlawful act, without any intention to cause death or bodily injury to any:

    A Confession B Judgment C Person that could result in his death D Public document
59. Question 59 of 100

    Under Order XLIII, is a remand order under Order XLI, Rule 23 generally appealable?

    A Only if the High Court grants special leave B Yes, where an appeal would lie from the decree of the appellate court C Only in suits involving immovable property D No, remand orders can never be appealed
60. Question 60 of 100

    Under Article 2, 'evidence' also includes all documents produced for the inspection of the Court, called:

    A Documentary evidence B Direct evidence C Oral evidence D Hearsay evidence
61. Question 61 of 100

    Under Section 154, information given orally to an officer in charge of a police station regarding a cognizable offence must be:

    A Ignored unless given in writing by the informant himself B Recorded only after the trial concludes C Reduced to writing, read over to the informant, and signed by him D Recorded only by a Magistrate
62. Question 62 of 100

    Section 299 defines terms used in the provisions relating to qatl, such as 'qatl-e-amd', 'qatl shibh-i-amd', and:

    A 'Criminal trespass' B 'Public nuisance' C 'Qatl-i-khata' D 'Criminal misappropriation'
63. Question 63 of 100

    Under Order I, may a defendant be joined in a suit if the plaintiff is uncertain from which of several persons he is entitled to relief?

    A Only with the prior leave of the High Court B No, the plaintiff must first identify a single defendant before suing C Yes, all such persons may be joined as defendants and the court may decide the question as between them D No, the suit must be dismissed for uncertainty
64. Question 64 of 100

    Distinguish Order XLI, Rule 11 from Order XLI, Rule 23: what is the key difference in what each addresses?

    A Rule 11 concerns dismissal of an appeal for the appellant's non-appearance, while Rule 23 concerns remand of a case decided below on a preliminary point B They are identical provisions with no meaningful distinction C Rule 11 applies only in the Supreme Court, Rule 23 only in the High Court D Rule 23 must always precede Rule 11 in every appeal
65. Question 65 of 100

    Under Rule 164, if extreme circumstances justify a public statement about pending litigation, is it professional to make that statement anonymously?

    A Yes, if the client consents to anonymity B Yes, anonymity is preferred to avoid personal bias C No, this is described as unprofessional D Yes, provided the statement is factually accurate
66. Question 66 of 100

    A plaintiff loses a suit for possession of land, then files a second suit against the same defendant seeking possession of the same land on a new legal theory that could have been raised in the first suit. What bars this second suit?

    A Section 20's rule on cause of action B Nothing bars it; a plaintiff may always raise new theories in successive suits C Constructive res judicata under Section 11, Explanation IV, since the new ground ought to have been raised in the earlier suit D Section 15's rule on the lowest competent court
67. Question 67 of 100

    Article 20 protects, subject to law, public order and morality, the right to:

    A Bear arms for self-defence B Inherit ancestral property C Form trade unions D Profess, practice and propagate one's religion
68. Question 68 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 2, when may a court dismiss a suit for the plaintiff's failure to pay costs necessary for serving the defendant?

    A Only where the defendant has already filed a written statement B Only where the suit exceeds a certain pecuniary value C Whenever the defendant simply requests dismissal D Where summons has not been served due to the plaintiff's failure to pay the court fee or postal charges chargeable for service
69. Question 69 of 100

    The examination of a witness, subsequent to the cross-examination, by the party who called him, is called his:

    A Preliminary examination B Examination-in-chief C Cross-examination D Re-examination
70. Question 70 of 100

    An advocate wishes to display a name board outside his office measuring 4 feet by 4 feet. Does this comply with Rule 174-B?

    A Yes, if the Bar Council is notified in advance B Yes, there is no upper limit C Yes, provided it is tastefully designed D No — Rule 174-B caps the size at 1½ feet by 2 feet
71. Question 71 of 100

    Section 366 punishes kidnapping or abducting a woman with intent that she may be compelled to marry a person against her will, or in order that she may be forced or seduced to:

    A Illicit intercourse B A civil suit C A public document D A confession
72. Question 72 of 100

    Under Section 11's Explanation V, how is a relief claimed in a plaint treated if it is not expressly granted by the decree, for purposes of res judicata?

    A It is deemed to have been refused B It is deemed to remain undecided and open for a future suit C It has no bearing on any future proceeding D It is deemed to have been granted by implication
73. Question 73 of 100

    The underlying principle for admitting a dying declaration, despite it being hearsay, is often expressed by the maxim that a person will not meet his:

    A Maker with a lie upon his lips B Lawyer with false information C Witness with contradictions D Creditor with a lie
74. Question 74 of 100

    Two of the most authoritative Sunni hadith collections, together called 'Al-Sahihayn', are:

    A Muwatta Malik and Musnad Ahmad B Sahih al-Bukhari and Sahih Muslim C Sunan Ibn Majah and Sunan al-Nasa'i D Sunan Abu Dawood and Sunan al-Tirmidhi
75. Question 75 of 100

    Section 97 provides that every person has a right, subject to the restrictions contained in Section 99, to defend his own body, and the body of any other person, against any offence affecting the human body, and the property, whether movable or immovable, of himself or of any other person, against certain offences of:

    A Defamation only B Criminal breach of trust only C Cheating only D Theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass
76. Question 76 of 100

    Section 340 defines 'wrongful confinement' as wrongfully restraining a person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain:

    A Business hours only B Working hours C Circumscribing limits D Religious observances only
77. Question 77 of 100

    'Sunnah' in Islamic legal terminology refers to:

    A Only pre-Islamic Arab custom B The sayings, actions and tacit approvals of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) C Only the consensus of jurists D Only the Quranic text
78. Question 78 of 100

    Under the provisions relating to hurt, 'arsh' generally refers to the:

    A Compensation specified for a hurt B Punishment of death C Public document proving hurt D Judgment of a civil court
79. Question 79 of 100

    The presumption of genuineness attached to a certified copy of a public document exists to facilitate proof without requiring production of the:

    A Certified copy itself B Original record in every instance C FIR D Judgment
80. Question 80 of 100

    Article 166 essentially embodies the principle that appellate courts should not interfere with a decision merely for a technical error in the admission or rejection of evidence unless it has caused a:

    A Failure of justice B Reduction in court fees C Change in venue D Delay in trial
81. Question 81 of 100

    The concept of 'absolute liability' as developed in Indian law (M.C. Mehta case) removes the exceptions available under:

    A The rule of strict liability B The law of custom C The doctrine of precedent D The law of contract
82. Question 82 of 100

    A 'police report' as defined under the Cr.P.C. refers to a report made by a police officer to a Magistrate under:

    A Section 154 B Section 200 C Section 173 D Section 161
83. Question 83 of 100

    Under Article 38(1)(d) of the ICJ Statute, judicial decisions and teachings serve as what?

    A Primary source of law B Customary law C Binding precedent D Subsidiary means for determining rules of law
84. Question 84 of 100

    Section 502 deals with the procedure to be followed upon:

    A Grant of an appeal against acquittal B Forfeiture of a bail bond for breach of its conditions C Issue of a search-warrant under Section 96 D Recording of information under Section 154
85. Question 85 of 100

    Which jurist is known for the phrase treating law as a form of 'social control'?

    A Savigny B Austin C Hans Kelsen D Roscoe Pound
86. Question 86 of 100

    According to widely reported coverage of the 27th Amendment, Article 175E gives the Federal Constitutional Court exclusive jurisdiction over which matters?

    A Constitutional interpretation, federal-provincial disputes, and enforcement of fundamental rights B Only election disputes C Only criminal appeals D Only tax disputes
87. Question 87 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC deals with parties to suits?

    A Order VII B Order I C Order IX D Order VI
88. Question 88 of 100

    The rule permitting proof of execution of an attested document by admission of the executant, without calling the attesting witness, does not dispense with the requirement of attestation itself where attestation is:

    A Irrelevant to the document B Only required for public documents C Only required for electronic records D Mandatorily required by the substantive law governing that document
89. Question 89 of 100

    Under Article 63A(5), an appeal against the Election Commission's defection decision lies, after the 27th Amendment, to:

    A The Senate Committee on Rules B The Supreme Court C The Federal Constitutional Court D The relevant High Court
90. Question 90 of 100

    Secondary evidence also includes counterparts of documents as against parties who did not execute them, and oral accounts of the contents of a document given by:

    A A stranger with no knowledge of it B Some person who has himself seen it C The Magistrate recording confession D The investigating officer only
91. Question 91 of 100

    Which UN Charter chapter relates to international economic and social cooperation?

    A Chapter XI B Chapter IX C Chapter X D Chapter VIII
92. Question 92 of 100

    Under Order XLI, what power does the court have if it finds a memorandum of appeal to be defective?

    A It has no power to act on a defective memorandum B It must automatically dismiss the appeal outright C To reject or require amendment of the memorandum, recording its reasons for doing so D It must transfer the appeal to a different court
93. Question 93 of 100

    Which rule addresses an advocate accepting employment adverse to a former client using confidential information?

    A Rule 151 B Rule 145 C Rule 146 D Rule 147
94. Question 94 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order XLI governs the narrow circumstances in which additional evidence may be produced before the appellate court?

    A Rule 11 B Rule 23 C Rule 10 D Rule 27
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Section 25, a person is said to do a thing 'fraudulently' if he does that thing with intent to:

    A Benefit himself only B Comply with a contract C Defraud, but not otherwise D Assist the Government
96. Question 96 of 100

    Section 431 deals with the effect of the death of an appellant on the pendency of an:

    A Security proceeding under Chapter VIII only B FIR investigation only C Appeal D Bail application only, with no bearing on the appeal itself
97. Question 97 of 100

    Where the accused resides beyond the local limits of the Magistrate's jurisdiction, certain formalities under Section 204 are generally required before:

    A The complaint is examined under Section 200 B Bail is considered under Section 496 C Process is issued to compel his attendance D The FIR is recorded under Section 154
98. Question 98 of 100

    Section 392 provides the general punishment for robbery, generally consisting of rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to:

    A Ten years B One month C Twenty-five years D Six months
99. Question 99 of 100

    A jurist who rejects a particular Qiyas because it opposes a clearer textual rule or public interest may resort instead to:

    A Istihsan (juristic preference) B Naskh C Tafsir D Isnad
100. Question 100 of 100

     Which Order of the CPC deals specifically with the written statement?

     A Order VII B Order VI C Order VIII D Order IX

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