Law GAT Mock Test 11

1. Question 1 of 100

   Which fundamental rights were primarily argued to be violated by provisions of the NAB Ordinance in this case?

   A Right to fair trial, presumption of innocence, and protection against arbitrary detention B Right to form associations only C Right to property only D Freedom of religion only
2. Question 2 of 100

   What does Order XLI of the CPC deal with?

   A Temporary injunctions B Appeals from original decrees C Appeals from orders D Parties to suits
3. Question 3 of 100

   Section 156(3) empowers a Magistrate, upon a complaint or application, to:

   A Dismiss all future complaints permanently B Directly convict the accused without any investigation C Order an investigation into a cognizable offence D Grant unconditional bail without inquiry
4. Question 4 of 100

   The acceptor of a bill of exchange is not permitted to deny that the drawer had authority to draw such bill or to endorse it, this being an example of estoppel against the:

   A Court B Payee only C Acceptor D Drawer
5. Question 5 of 100

   The rationale for excluding confessions made to a police officer is primarily to guard against:

   A Possible coercion or fabrication while in police custody B Excessive documentation C Loss of court fees D Delay in trial
6. Question 6 of 100

   What broader principle did the Supreme Court affirm in Asma Jilani's case regarding successful revolutions?

   A Mere success or efficacy of a revolution does not automatically make it legally or morally legitimate B Courts must always endorse a government in effective control C Any successful revolution is automatically the supreme law D Martial law is always unconstitutional regardless of circumstances
7. Question 7 of 100

   Under Rule 159, where proper grounds for complaint against a judicial officer exist, what is it the right and duty of an advocate to do?

   A Raise the matter only informally, never through legal channels B Ventilate such grievances and seek redress legally C Resign from practice in that court D Remain silent to preserve judicial dignity
8. Question 8 of 100

   Article 19's protection of freedom of speech also extends to protecting freedom of which institution specifically, alongside the individual?

   A The press B Universities C Trade unions D The judiciary
9. Question 9 of 100

   Under Order VIII, must a defendant's denial of an allegation be specific, or is a general denial sufficient?

   A A specific denial is required; a general or evasive denial is generally not sufficient B Only a sworn affidavit denying the claim in its entirety is accepted C No denial of any kind is legally required D A general denial is always sufficient
10. Question 10 of 100

    Both Rule 146 and Rule 174 restrict an advocate from taking on certain matters based on prior involvement. What is the key distinction between them?

    A Rule 146 applies only to judges, Rule 174 only to advocates in private practice B They address identical situations with no meaningful distinction C Rule 146 concerns fees, Rule 174 concerns name boards D Rule 146 concerns confidential information from a prior client relationship, while Rule 174 concerns matters previously handled in a judicial or public office capacity
11. Question 11 of 100

    Section 360 defines 'kidnapping from Pakistan' as conveying any person beyond the limits of Pakistan without the:

    A Knowledge of any public servant B Consent of that person, or of some person legally authorized to consent on behalf of that person C Registration with the police D Permission of a foreign court
12. Question 12 of 100

    Which doctrine did the Supreme Court apply to validate the 1999 military takeover in this case?

    A Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation B Doctrine of Proportionality C Doctrine of State Necessity D Doctrine of Basic Structure
13. Question 13 of 100

    A client's funds are received by an advocate and deposited into the advocate's personal bank account alongside his own money. Which rule does this violate?

    A Rule 154 B No rule, provided the funds are eventually returned C Rule 150, which prohibits commingling client property with the advocate's own D Rule 141
14. Question 14 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what does 'mesne profits' refer to?

    A The court fee paid on a suit B The costs awarded to the successful party C The value of the subject-matter of a suit D Profits that a person in wrongful possession of property actually received or could have received with ordinary diligence, together with interest
15. Question 15 of 100

    The provisions on rape under Section 375 recognize that consent obtained through fraudulent means, or from a person incapable of understanding the nature of the act, such as a person under a certain age or of unsound mind, does not constitute valid consent, reflecting the law's concern for:

    A The financial status of the victim B Formalities of documentation only C The religious belief of the accused D The genuineness and capacity to give free consent
16. Question 16 of 100

    A defendant fails to appear despite being properly served, and an ex parte decree is passed against him. He later shows the court he was seriously ill on the hearing date and could not attend. What is his general remedy?

    A Appeal directly to the Supreme Court B Apply under Order XXXIX for an injunction C File a fresh suit on the same matter D Apply under Order IX to have the ex parte decree set aside, by showing sufficient cause for non-appearance
17. Question 17 of 100

    Section 499 requires that the amount of every bond executed under Chapter XXXIX be fixed with due regard to the circumstances of the case, and must not be:

    A Below a fixed statutory minimum in every single case B Deposited only with the complainant personally C Paid in foreign currency exclusively D Excessive
18. Question 18 of 100

    A judgment in a criminal case convicting a person is generally not relevant in a subsequent civil suit as conclusive proof of the facts on which it was based, being subject to the:

    A Rule of estoppel by conduct B Rule against hearsay only C General rule of relevancy of judgments other than those specially declared relevant D Rule of privileged communications
19. Question 19 of 100

    A Money Bill is passed by the National Assembly and sent to the Senate. The Senate proposes amendments after 20 days. Under Article 73, are these recommendations within the constitutional timeframe?

    A No, since the Senate's window for recommendations is only 14 days B Yes, as 20 days is within a reasonable period C Yes, since there is no time limit D No, since Money Bills cannot go to the Senate at all
20. Question 20 of 100

    The historical compilation and systematic recording of hadith into major collections mostly took place during the:

    A Pre-Islamic period B 20th century C 2nd and 3rd centuries after Hijrah (roughly 8th-9th century CE) D Lifetime of the Prophet (PBUH) himself
21. Question 21 of 100

    Section 109 deals with security for good behaviour required from persons:

    A Who are Government servants only B Taking precautions to conceal their presence and having no ostensible means of livelihood C Who are complainants in a case D Who have been acquitted after a full trial
22. Question 22 of 100

    Statements made by several persons expressing feelings relevant to the matter in question, though those persons cannot be called as witnesses, may become relevant, subject to statutory conditions being satisfied, under the exception for:

    A Estoppel by conduct B Presumptions of law C Statements by persons who cannot be called as witnesses D Public documents
23. Question 23 of 100

    The rationale behind the rule against reversing decisions for improper admission or rejection of evidence, absent a failure of justice, is to prevent trials from being reduced to mere contests over:

    A The wording of the FIR alone B Technicalities of procedure rather than substantial justice C The character of the parties D The competency of the Judge
24. Question 24 of 100

    A document more than thirty years old need not be independently proved to be genuine if it comes from proper custody, because the law dispenses with the ordinary requirement of calling the:

    A Certified copy B Public Prosecutor C Attesting or executing witnesses, who may no longer be traceable D Investigating officer
25. Question 25 of 100

    Before recording a confession, a Magistrate is required to satisfy himself that it is being made:

    A Only after conviction B Under pressure from the police C Voluntarily, after explaining to the accused that he is not bound to make it D Only in the presence of the complainant
26. Question 26 of 100

    An FIR recorded under Section 154, according to settled legal principle, is generally treated as:

    A Not substantive evidence in itself, but usable to corroborate or contradict its maker B An appeal memorandum C A judgment of conviction D Conclusive proof of guilt
27. Question 27 of 100

    A proviso to Section 497 generally addresses the entitlement of an accused to bail where the trial has not concluded within a prescribed period and the accused has been in custody for a specified duration, often referred to as statutory or default bail based on:

    A The investigating officer's promotion B Delay in the conclusion of trial/investigation C The complainant's consent alone D The accused's personal wealth alone
28. Question 28 of 100

    Which of the following best describes the Quran's role relative to the Sunnah in Islamic law?

    A The Quran and Sunnah are entirely unrelated sources B The Quran only deals with worship, never with legal rules C The Quran is the primary source; the Sunnah explains, elaborates, and supplements it D The Sunnah is superior to and overrides the Quran
29. Question 29 of 100

    Under Article 58(1), the President shall dissolve the National Assembly if so advised by the Prime Minister, and the Assembly stands dissolved after how many hours of such advice (unless sooner dissolved)?

    A Forty-eight hours B Twenty-four hours C Ninety-six hours D Seventy-two hours
30. Question 30 of 100

    As a matter of prudence, however, courts generally require the testimony of an accomplice to be corroborated in material particulars connecting the:

    A Complainant with a civil claim B Accused with the commission of the offence C Witness with a public document D Court with the judgment
31. Question 31 of 100

    Section 442 defines 'house-trespass' as committing criminal trespass by entering into, or remaining in, any building, tent, or vessel used as a human:

    A Court only B Dwelling, or place for custody of property C Workplace only D Public office only
32. Question 32 of 100

    The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding generally lies on the person who would:

    A Win if no evidence were given on either side B Fail if no evidence were given on either side C Be exempted from giving evidence D Be acquitted regardless of evidence
33. Question 33 of 100

    Under Order XXXIX, what is the primary purpose of a temporary injunction, as opposed to a final, permanent injunction?

    A To preserve the status quo pending resolution of the suit on its merits B To punish the defendant for prior conduct C To transfer the property in dispute to the plaintiff immediately D To permanently and finally resolve the parties' rights
34. Question 34 of 100

    Natural law theory experienced a revival in the 20th century partly due to reaction against:

    A The atrocities of totalitarian regimes and pure legal positivism B The Sociological school C American Realism D The Historical school
35. Question 35 of 100

    Who dissolved the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan in October 1954, giving rise to this case?

    A President Iskander Mirza B General Ayub Khan C Chief Justice Munir D Governor-General Ghulam Muhammad
36. Question 36 of 100

    No confession made by any person while in the custody of a police officer is relevant against him, unless it is made in the immediate presence of a:

    A Public Prosecutor B Magistrate C Advocate for the accused only D Complainant
37. Question 37 of 100

    Under Rule 162, what is described as the only proper foundation for cordial relations between the Bench and the Bar?

    A Personal friendship between advocates and judges B Deference to every request a judge makes C A self-respecting independence in the discharge of professional duty, without denial of due courtesy and respect D Frequent informal social contact
38. Question 38 of 100

    Which rule prohibits an advocate from purchasing property, even benami, at a judicial sale in a proceeding where he appears for a party?

    A Rule 150 B Rule 154 C Rule 145 D Rule 149
39. Question 39 of 100

    Under Article 2, 'Court' includes all judges and magistrates, and all persons, except arbitrators, legally authorized to:

    A Prosecute offences B Appoint judges C Draft legislation D Take evidence
40. Question 40 of 100

    The primary evidences (Adillah Asliyyah) agreed upon by the majority of Sunni jurists are the Quran, Sunnah, Ijma and:

    A Istihsan B Qiyas C Urf D Istishab
41. Question 41 of 100

    Under Article 175A(3), the Chief Justice of the Federal Constitutional Court and Chief Justice of the Supreme Court are nominated by which body?

    A The President in his sole discretion B The Judicial Commission alone C The Special Parliamentary Committee D The Senate Standing Committee on Law
42. Question 42 of 100

    Which rule prohibits an advocate from acquiring an interest adverse to his client in the subject-matter of a case?

    A Rule 148 B Rule 150 C Rule 145 D Rule 146
43. Question 43 of 100

    How many original signatory states signed the UN Charter?

    A 51 B 50 C 45 D 55
44. Question 44 of 100

    Distinguish Order IX, Rule 8 from Order IX, Rule 9: how do these two rules relate to each other?

    A They are unrelated provisions in entirely separate parts of the Code B Rule 8 governs the initial dismissal of a suit where only the defendant appears, while Rule 9 governs the plaintiff's application to have that dismissal set aside C Rule 8 applies only to appeals, Rule 9 only to original suits D Rule 9 is a precondition that must be satisfied before Rule 8 can ever apply
45. Question 45 of 100

    Under Article 175(1), as amended by the 27th Amendment (2025), which court is now listed FIRST among the superior courts of Pakistan?

    A The Supreme Court B The Islamabad High Court C The Federal Shariat Court D The Federal Constitutional Court
46. Question 46 of 100

    Under Section 115 CPC (revision), on what grounds may the High Court interfere with a subordinate court's decision in a case where no appeal lies?

    A Only where the amount in dispute exceeds a fixed threshold B Whenever the High Court simply disagrees with the outcome C Only where both parties consent to revision D Where the subordinate court exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise jurisdiction vested in it, or acted illegally or with material irregularity in exercising its jurisdiction
47. Question 47 of 100

    Section 361 defines 'kidnapping from lawful guardianship' as taking or enticing a minor, or a person of unsound mind, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind, without the guardian's:

    A Consent B Written approval registered with a Magistrate C Notice to police D Convenience
48. Question 48 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who is a 'decree-holder'?

    A Any advocate who argued the successful side of a case B Only the plaintiff, regardless of the outcome of the suit C Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed, or an order capable of execution has been made D Only a person who has already fully executed the decree
49. Question 49 of 100

    An extra-judicial confession is a confession made to a person other than a:

    A Magistrate or Court in the course of judicial proceedings B Relative C Neighbour D Friend
50. Question 50 of 100

    Under Chapter XIV, the police officer is generally required to maintain a day-to-day record of the investigation, commonly called the:

    A FIR register only B Case diary (under Section 172) C Bail register only D Charge-sheet register only
51. Question 51 of 100

    Section 337 defines and provides punishment for various kinds of hurt including shajjah and jurh, categorizing jurh, i.e. hurt other than to the head or face, into 'jaifah' and:

    A 'Diyat' B 'Ghayr-jaifah' C 'Qatl-i-khata' D 'Isqat-e-hamal'
52. Question 52 of 100

    Which rule states that a public prosecutor's primary duty is to see that justice is done, not merely to secure a conviction?

    A Rule 172 B Rule 163 C Rule 156 D Rule 153
53. Question 53 of 100

    A ruling reached through Qiyas is generally regarded, in terms of certainty, as:

    A Probable (Zanni) rather than definitively certain (Qat'i) B Completely arbitrary and unprincipled C Absolutely certain, equal to the Quran D Equal in certainty to Mutawatir hadith always
54. Question 54 of 100

    Where two provisions overlap, such as the general rule requiring documents to be proved by primary evidence and the special rule allowing certified copies of public documents, the latter, being a specific exception, generally:

    A Is overridden by the general rule B Has no legal effect C Prevails over the general rule for public documents D Applies only to private documents
55. Question 55 of 100

    The UN Charter consists of how many chapters?

    A 21 B 20 C 19 D 18
56. Question 56 of 100

    Section 415 defines 'cheating' as deceiving any person, and thereby fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person to deliver any property, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally inducing that person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so:

    A Compensated B Confessed C Deceived D Registered
57. Question 57 of 100

    What is the overarching structure of Chapter XII of the Bar Councils Rules, 1976, in terms of its four sections?

    A Sections are organized alphabetically by rule topic, not by relationship B Section A (fees), Section B (litigation), Section C (appeals), Section D (elections) C There are only two sections, not four D Section A (other advocates), Section B (clients), Section C (duty to the Court), Section D (the public generally)
58. Question 58 of 100

    An advocate who previously served as a judge is later asked to represent a party in a case whose merits he had personally adjudicated while on the bench. May he accept?

    A Yes, provided he charges no fee B Yes, after a short waiting period C Yes, provided both parties consent D No — Rule 174 bars an advocate from accepting employment in a matter he previously acted upon in a judicial capacity
59. Question 59 of 100

    What does Section 151 CPC preserve?

    A The inherent powers of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court B The power to reduce court fees C The court's power to levy new taxes D The right of a party to change advocates mid-trial
60. Question 60 of 100

    Which section of the CPC provides that questions relating to execution of a decree are to be decided by the executing court, not a fresh suit?

    A Section 115 B Section 47 C Section 104 D Section 96
61. Question 61 of 100

    Under Article 89(2)(b), an Ordinance not relating to Money Bill matters stands repealed if disapproved by resolution of the House before which it is laid, or otherwise after the expiration of how many days from its being laid, whichever is earlier?

    A Sixty days B Ninety days C One hundred and twenty days D Forty-five days
62. Question 62 of 100

    Section 350 defines 'criminal force' as the intentional use of force to any person, without that person's consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or with intent to cause, or knowing it likely to cause, injury, fear, or:

    A Annoyance to that person B Compensation to that person C Benefit to that person D Confession by that person
63. Question 63 of 100

    The rationale for the general exceptions in Chapter IV of the Pakistan Penal Code is that criminal liability generally requires both a guilty act and a guilty mind, described respectively as:

    A Motive and preparation B Confession and admission C Corpus delicti and alibi D Actus reus and mens rea
64. Question 64 of 100

    Article 66(1) grants members of Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) freedom of speech and immunity from court proceedings for:

    A Anything said or any vote given in Parliament B Acts performed before becoming a member C Personal financial dealings D Statements made outside Parliament
65. Question 65 of 100

    Under Order VII, Rule 11, what happens to a plaint that does not disclose a cause of action or fails to meet the required legal formalities?

    A It may be rejected by the court B It is treated as an application for review C It is automatically converted into a written statement D It is transferred to the High Court
66. Question 66 of 100

    Where the law directs the Court to presume a fact, it is bound to regard such fact as proved unless and until it is:

    A Disproved B Certified C Judicially noticed D Admitted
67. Question 67 of 100

    What is the term for an advisory function exercised by the ICJ?

    A Provisional Measure B Interim Order C Binding Judgment D Advisory Opinion
68. Question 68 of 100

    Which section of the CPC governs suits for compensation for wrongs to the person or movable property?

    A Section 18 B Section 16 C Section 17 D Section 19
69. Question 69 of 100

    Which school of jurisprudence studies law in relation to its historical origin and development?

    A Sociological school B Analytical school C Realist school D Historical school
70. Question 70 of 100

    Under Rule 169, does a client have the right to demand that his advocate abuse the opposite party or indulge in offensive argument?

    A Yes, if the client believes it will help the case B Yes, provided the advocate agrees C No D Yes, in adversarial proceedings generally
71. Question 71 of 100

    A losing party wishes to challenge a District Judge's order on the ground that the judge exceeded his jurisdiction, but no appeal lies from that order. What remedy under the CPC is most directly available?

    A An application under Section 47 alone B Revision under Section 115 C A fresh suit on the same cause of action D A reference under Section 113 alone
72. Question 72 of 100

    Under Order IX, what is the general effect if the court is satisfied that a party's non-appearance was caused by circumstances such as a death in the family?

    A The suit must be dismissed regardless of the reason for absence B The matter must be referred to the High Court for a ruling on the excuse C The court may decline to dismiss the suit on that ground, treating the absence as excused D The opposing party automatically wins the suit outright
73. Question 73 of 100

    Under Article 53(1), the National Assembly elects from amongst its members a Speaker and:

    A A Deputy Speaker B No deputy position exists C Two Deputy Speakers D A Speaker pro tem only
74. Question 74 of 100

    Compared to Chapter X (Public Nuisance), the proceedings under Chapter XI are generally characterized by their:

    A Permanent and conclusive determination of civil title B Exclusive focus on appellate review C Urgency and temporary/preventive character D Exclusive focus on recording confessions
75. Question 75 of 100

    Article 10A, inserted by the 18th Amendment (2010), guarantees:

    A The right to bail B The right to legal representation only in criminal cases C The right to a fair trial and due process D The right against double jeopardy
76. Question 76 of 100

    Admissions of fact made before trial, whether by pleadings or otherwise, generally have the effect of dispensing with the need for:

    A Cross-examination on unrelated matters B Formal proof of the admitted fact at trial C The framing of a charge D Any judgment at all
77. Question 77 of 100

    Statements as to the terms on which a document was reduced into writing, when the genuineness of the document is disputed, are relevant to the question of its:

    A Attestation only B Stamp duty C Registration only D Genuineness
78. Question 78 of 100

    Section 440 defines 'mischief committed with violence' as mischief committed in circumstances such that the person committing it knows it likely to cause death, or hurt, or wrongful restraint, or fear of any of these, to any:

    A Foreign national only B Person present or expected to be present C Public servant exclusively D Court official only
79. Question 79 of 100

    What was the practical effect of the Dosso ruling on the FCR 1901 and other pre-existing laws?

    A Only the 1956 Constitution was revived B Only criminal laws survived C All pre-existing laws continued in force under the new legal order created by martial law D All laws were automatically repealed
80. Question 80 of 100

    A court realizes a clerical error was made in a decree it passed and wishes to correct it despite no specific provision addressing that exact error. Which provision most likely supports this correction?

    A Order IX alone B Section 151, the inherent powers provision C Section 20 alone D Section 9 alone
81. Question 81 of 100

    In criminal cases, the general burden of proving the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt lies upon the:

    A Defence counsel B Complainant's family only C Accused D Prosecution
82. Question 82 of 100

    Article 38 of the ICJ Statute lists the sources the Court applies; which is NOT among them?

    A General principles of law B Judicial legislation C International custom D International conventions
83. Question 83 of 100

    What term describes a party wrongly added to a suit without a legal connection to the case?

    A Impleader B Misjoinder C Non-joinder D Interpleader
84. Question 84 of 100

    Generally, no appeal lies in petty cases, such as certain minor sentences of fine alone below a prescribed threshold, except on a question of:

    A Sentence severity alone, with no legal question involved B Fact only C Law D Costs only
85. Question 85 of 100

    Imam Abu Hanifa was primarily based in the city of:

    A Madinah B Cairo C Kufa (Iraq) D Baghdad exclusively as his birthplace
86. Question 86 of 100

    Under Section 23, the word 'wrongful gain' means gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally:

    A Entitled B Related C Married D Employed
87. Question 87 of 100

    The study of law 'as it is' (positive law) is called:

    A Censorial jurisprudence B Natural jurisprudence C Ethical jurisprudence D Expository jurisprudence
88. Question 88 of 100

    If an impression caused by any inducement, threat or promise in reference to a charge has, in the opinion of the Court, been fully removed before a confession is made, such confession is:

    A Only relevant in summary trials B Always irrelevant C Relevant D Only relevant against co-accused
89. Question 89 of 100

    Which jurist argued that even in a democracy, the electorate can be regarded as the sovereign under Austin's theory?

    A Austin himself (via the concept of the 'sovereign body') B Pound C Duguit D Savigny
90. Question 90 of 100

    Under Chapter V, if an arrested person escapes from custody, the person effecting the original arrest may:

    A Never retake him without a fresh warrant B Pursue and retake him at any time and in any place in the country C Only retake him within the same police station's limits D Only retake him with the High Court's prior permission
91. Question 91 of 100

    A witness's competency to testify is distinct from his compellability, since a person may be a competent witness yet, in certain circumstances such as privileged communications, not be:

    A Regarded as a party to the suit B Permitted to appear in Court at all C Permitted to take an oath D Compellable to disclose particular matters
92. Question 92 of 100

    Which UN organ can enforce a judgment of the ICJ?

    A Security Council B Secretariat C ECOSOC D General Assembly
93. Question 93 of 100

    Which section of the CPC codifies the doctrine of res sub judice (stay of suit)?

    A Section 9 B Section 10 C Section 12 D Section 11
94. Question 94 of 100

    Under Section 19 CPC, if a wrong to the person or movable property occurs in one jurisdiction but the defendant resides in another, where may the plaintiff sue?

    A Only in the plaintiff's home jurisdiction B Only where the defendant resides C At the plaintiff's option, in either jurisdiction D Only where the wrong occurred
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Section 16 CPC's illustrations, in what type of suits must the property's location generally govern the choice of court?

    A Only suits exceeding a certain pecuniary value B Suits for recovery of immovable property, partition, foreclosure/sale/redemption of a mortgage, or compensation for wrong to immovable property C All suits without exception D Only suits between government entities
96. Question 96 of 100

    Under Article 59(2), seats in the Senate are allocated equally to:

    A Each Province, regardless of population B Provinces based on population size C The Federal Government's discretion D Only Punjab and Sindh
97. Question 97 of 100

    John Locke's natural law theory emphasized natural rights to life, liberty and:

    A Suffrage only B Religion only C Property D Education only
98. Question 98 of 100

    The overall purpose of Chapter XIV's provisions on recording information and investigation is to ensure:

    A That no record whatsoever is kept of police action B That the complainant alone decides the final verdict C An organized, accountable and evidence-based process for bringing offenders to justice while safeguarding procedural rights D That the accused is convicted without a trial
99. Question 99 of 100

    Under Order VIII, if a defendant wishes to raise a claim of his own against the plaintiff within the same suit, distinct from a mere denial, what mechanism does the Code contemplate?

    A An application under Order XXXIX only B A fresh, entirely separate suit only, never within the same proceeding C A revision petition under Section 115 D A set-off or counter-claim
100. Question 100 of 100

     An electronic document or record, to be admissible under the modern amendments to the law of evidence, generally requires proof in accordance with the special provisions relating to:

     A Only public documents B Only privileged communications C Electronic documents and digital signatures D Only oral evidence

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