Law GAT Mock Test 5

1. Question 1 of 100

   Estoppel operates as a rule of evidence which prevents a party from asserting a fact contrary to what he has previously, by conduct or representation, led another to believe, and it is generally said that estoppel:

   A Creates substantive rights of its own B Is a rule of evidence and does not itself create substantive rights C Overrides all other rules of evidence absolutely D Applies only to criminal cases
2. Question 2 of 100

   Begum Nusrat Bhutto filed her petition in response to which event?

   A The dissolution of the Constituent Assembly in 1954 B The 1958 martial law of Iskander Mirza C The 1999 Musharraf coup D The military takeover by General Zia-ul-Haq on 5 July 1977
3. Question 3 of 100

   Under Order XLI, in what general court is an appeal from an original decree preferred?

   A Any court of the appellant's choosing B A court of equal rank in a neighbouring district C The same court that passed the decree D A court superior in rank to the court that passed the decree
4. Question 4 of 100

   An advocate cites a precedent in court while privately knowing it was later overruled, without telling the judge. Which rule does this breach?

   A Rule 161, which prohibits citing as authority a decision known to be invalid without disclosing that fact B No rule; case-law currency is solely the judge's responsibility to verify C Rule 159 alone D Rule 167
5. Question 5 of 100

   Under Rule 171, is an advocate obliged to act as adviser or advocate for every person who wishes to become his client?

   A Yes, unless the Bar Council grants an exemption B No, he has the right to decline professional employment C Yes, without exception D Yes, in criminal matters only
6. Question 6 of 100

   Where was the United Nations Charter signed?

   A Geneva B New York C San Francisco D The Hague
7. Question 7 of 100

   Section 80 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, and without any criminal intention or knowledge, in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner, by lawful means, and with proper:

   A Speed B Witnesses present C Care and caution D Documentation
8. Question 8 of 100

   Mischief, as an offence against property, is distinguished from theft chiefly by the fact that mischief does not involve any dishonest taking of the property, but rather its:

   A Entrustment under a fiduciary relationship B Delivery under fraudulent representation C Destruction, damage or diminution of value or utility D Transfer to another person
9. Question 9 of 100

   Who described jurisprudence as 'the eye of law'?

   A Wurzel B Austin C Holland D Salmond
10. Question 10 of 100

    Leading questions, i.e. questions suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive, may not, if objected to by the adverse party, be asked in:

    A Examination-in-chief or in re-examination, except with the permission of the Court B Any stage of the trial whatsoever C The recording of a dying declaration only D Cross-examination
11. Question 11 of 100

    Under Article 175A(9), names recommended by the Judicial Commission are forwarded to the Special Parliamentary Committee, which must confirm within how many days, failing which the nomination is deemed confirmed?

    A Twenty-one days B Thirty days C Seven days D Fourteen days
12. Question 12 of 100

    Under Rule 170, when must an advocate decline to conduct a civil cause or defence?

    A Whenever the case is likely to be lost B When convinced it is intended merely to harass or injure the opposite party, or to work oppression or wrong C Whenever the opposing party is more senior at the Bar D Whenever the client cannot afford the full fee upfront
13. Question 13 of 100

    Under Section 7, whenever an expression is explained in any part of the Code, it is used in every part of the Code in conformity with:

    A Its dictionary meaning only B The intention of the accused C The complainant's understanding D The explanation given in that part
14. Question 14 of 100

    Realists generally place greater emphasis on which of the following over formal rules?

    A Religious doctrine B Ancient custom exclusively C Judicial behavior and discretion D Legislative intent exclusively
15. Question 15 of 100

    Under the Cr.P.C., 'charge' includes:

    A Any head of a charge when the charge contains more heads than one B Only the punishment prescribed C Only the FIR D Only the first count of an indictment
16. Question 16 of 100

    A 'summons-case' means a case relating to an offence:

    A Involving a cognizable offence only B Triable exclusively by the Sessions Court C Punishable with death only D Not being a warrant-case
17. Question 17 of 100

    The Code of Criminal Procedure currently in force in Pakistan was originally enacted in the year:

    A 1898 B 1973 C 1860 D 1908
18. Question 18 of 100

    A witness giving testimony as to a fact may state facts of his previous conduct, provided the statement was made at or about the time when the fact took place, which may be proved to corroborate his testimony, being the rule permitting proof of former statements to:

    A Establish a confession B Corroborate testimony as to any fact C Bind the Court conclusively D Automatically discredit the witness
19. Question 19 of 100

    Where an accused person, in the custody of a police officer, gives information leading to the discovery of a fact, so much of that information as distinctly relates to the fact discovered may be:

    A Proved only with the consent of the accused B Proved only after conviction C Never proved D Proved, whether it amounts to a confession or not
20. Question 20 of 100

    Which rule addresses the duty to diligently defend an accused person regardless of personal opinion of guilt?

    A Rule 151 B Rule 153 C Rule 163 D Rule 157
21. Question 21 of 100

    A witness may be cross-examined as to previous statements made by him in writing, or reduced into writing, and relevant to matters in question, without such writing being shown to him, but if it is intended to contradict him by the writing, his attention must, before the writing can be proved, be called to those parts of it which are to be used for the purpose of:

    A Proving a public document B Contradicting him C Impeaching the complainant D Corroborating him
22. Question 22 of 100

    Under Order I, Rule 10, what power does the court have regarding parties to a suit?

    A To substitute, add, or strike out parties at any stage of the proceedings B No power to alter parties once the suit is filed C Only the parties themselves may add or remove co-parties D Only to add parties, never to remove them
23. Question 23 of 100

    When the language of a document is ambiguous or defective on its face, oral evidence of the intention of the parties is generally:

    A Freely admissible in every case B Not admissible to remove a patent ambiguity C Only relevant in criminal cases D Conclusive proof of the parties' intention
24. Question 24 of 100

    With respect to documents thirty years old, produced from proper custody, the Court may presume that the signature and every other part purporting to be in the handwriting of any particular person is in that person's handwriting, and that it was duly:

    A Forged B Executed and attested by the persons by whom it purports to be executed and attested C Registered but not executed D Destroyed
25. Question 25 of 100

    Under Section 17, the word 'Government' denotes the person or persons authorized by law to administer executive government in:

    A A foreign state only B Pakistan or in any part thereof C Local councils only D The judiciary only
26. Question 26 of 100

    Where a document is lost, before secondary evidence of its contents can be given, the party must show that reasonable search was made and the document could not be:

    A Stamped B Found C Registered D Attested
27. Question 27 of 100

    Under Order I, if a suit is filed against the wrong defendant due to a bona fide mistake as to the correct party's identity, what power does the court generally have?

    A Only the Provincial Government may authorise such a correction B To allow the plaintiff to substitute the correct defendant, under its general powers to add, strike out, or substitute parties C None; the suit must be dismissed and refiled entirely from scratch D The suit must proceed against the originally named, incorrect defendant regardless
28. Question 28 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what does 'movable property' include, for the purposes of the Code?

    A Only livestock B Immovable fixtures only C Growing crops D Only cash and negotiable instruments
29. Question 29 of 100

    Article 23 guarantees every citizen the right to:

    A Acquire, hold and dispose of property in any part of Pakistan B Government employment C Free legal aid D Vote in local elections
30. Question 30 of 100

    Under Article 51(3), how many seats are reserved for women in the National Assembly under the current framework (general seats via proportional allocation among parties)?

    A Thirty B Sixty C Seventy D Forty-five
31. Question 31 of 100

    Article 24(4) states that the adequacy of compensation for compulsorily acquired property shall:

    A Always be subject to judicial review B Not be called into question in any court C Be decided only by the Supreme Court D Be fixed solely by Parliament
32. Question 32 of 100

    Article 19 of the UN Charter deals with the loss of which right for members in arrears?

    A Right to address the Assembly B Right to nominate ICJ judges C Membership in the Security Council D Vote in the General Assembly
33. Question 33 of 100

    Miss Asma Jilani vs. Government of Pakistan is reported at:

    A PLD 1972 S.C. 139 B PLD 1993 S.C. 473 C PLD 1977 S.C. 657 D PLD 1958 S.C. 533
34. Question 34 of 100

    Under Section 6 CPC (pecuniary jurisdiction), can a court exercise jurisdiction over a suit whose value exceeds the pecuniary limits of its ordinary jurisdiction, absent express provision otherwise?

    A Yes, but only in suits relating to immovable property B No C Yes, but only with the consent of both parties D Yes, always, regardless of value
35. Question 35 of 100

    Section 99 provides that the right of private defence does not extend to the infliction of more harm than is necessary for the purpose of:

    A Defence B Compensation C Retaliation D Punishment of the aggressor
36. Question 36 of 100

    Which section of the CPC gives the High Court its revisional jurisdiction over subordinate courts?

    A Section 104 B Section 115 C Section 96 D Section 47
37. Question 37 of 100

    Which of the following best distinguishes Chapter VIII proceedings from an ordinary criminal trial?

    A Chapter VIII proceedings cannot involve a Magistrate at all B Chapter VIII proceedings always result in the death penalty C Chapter VIII proceedings focus on preventing future conduct rather than punishing a specific completed offence D Chapter VIII proceedings are identical in every respect to a Sessions trial
38. Question 38 of 100

    Section 318 defines 'qatl-i-khata' as death caused by mistake of act or mistake of fact, where the actor, intending to do a lawful act, causes the death of a person by:

    A A deliberate criminal act B A confession C An admission D Mistake
39. Question 39 of 100

    Section 417 (as historically framed) deals with an appeal against an order of:

    A Acquittal B Dismissal of a bail application only C Conviction only D Grant of security under Chapter VIII only
40. Question 40 of 100

    Article 12 protects against:

    A Retrospective punishment B Unlawful property seizure C Arbitrary arrest D Self-incrimination
41. Question 41 of 100

    Chapter V of the Cr.P.C. deals with:

    A Arrest, Escape and Retaking B Public Nuisance C Bail D Appeals
42. Question 42 of 100

    Section 354 punishes assault or use of criminal force to a woman, with intent to outrage her:

    A Religious belief only B Property C Business D Modesty
43. Question 43 of 100

    The chapters of the Quran are arranged primarily according to:

    A Strict chronological order of revelation B Subject matter classification only C Length (roughly, not strictly chronological order of revelation) D Alphabetical order
44. Question 44 of 100

    Decisions of the ICJ are binding upon which parties?

    A Only the Security Council B All UN member states C All states in the region D Only the parties to the case
45. Question 45 of 100

    Section 496 provides that a person accused of a bailable offence shall, if he is prepared to give bail, be:

    A Detained regardless of any bail offered B Released only at the absolute discretion of the court, with no right involved C Released only after conviction D Released on bail as a matter of right
46. Question 46 of 100

    A statement made by a deceased person as to the existence of any relationship between persons, made before the question in dispute arose, may be relevant when the statement was made by a person having special means of:

    A Financial interest B Legal training C Knowledge of that relationship D Political influence
47. Question 47 of 100

    Under Rule 154, what should never be forgotten when fixing fees, given that the legal profession is described as a branch of the administration of justice?

    A That fees may never be negotiated B That fees must always be a fixed percentage of the claim C That fees are set exclusively by the Bar Council D That it is not a mere money-making trade
48. Question 48 of 100

    Under Order XLIII, Rule 1, what type of orders are appealable?

    A No orders are ever appealable B Only final decrees C Every single order passed by a civil court D Only those orders specifically listed in Rule 1, not every interlocutory order
49. Question 49 of 100

    Communications made between spouses during the marriage are generally protected, and neither spouse can, without the consent of the other, be compelled to disclose any such communication, unless the case falls within specified:

    A Exceptions, such as suits between the married persons or criminal proceedings by one against the other B Presumptions as to documents C Provisions relating to burden of proof D Provisions on judicial notice
50. Question 50 of 100

    The Reparation for Injuries case before the ICJ recognized what regarding international organizations?

    A Jus cogens status of human rights B State immunity of organizations C Universal jurisdiction D International legal personality of the UN
51. Question 51 of 100

    Under Article 83, expenditure from the Federal Consolidated Fund (other than charged expenditure) requires:

    A Direct presidential approval only B Joint sitting ratification each time C Senate veto power D An Appropriation Act, authorizing such expenditure
52. Question 52 of 100

    'Inquiry' under the Cr.P.C. means every inquiry other than a trial, conducted under the Code by a:

    A Police officer only B Jury C Magistrate or Court D Public Prosecutor only
53. Question 53 of 100

    Under the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, an 'admission' is a statement, oral or documentary, which suggests any inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact, made by any of the persons specified and under the circumstances:

    A Mentioned as irrelevant B Hereinafter mentioned C Only in the presence of a Magistrate D Only after conviction
54. Question 54 of 100

    The Natural Law school holds that the validity of law is derived from:

    A The command of a political sovereign only B Judicial precedent only C Local custom only D Reason, nature and universal moral principles
55. Question 55 of 100

    'Qiyas' in Islamic legal theory refers to:

    A A weak hadith B The consensus of jurists C The literal text of the Quran D Analogical reasoning extending a known ruling to a new, similar case
56. Question 56 of 100

    The essential ingredient distinguishing cheating from other property offences is the element of:

    A Taking property without the owner's knowledge B Entrustment of property under a fiduciary relationship C Force used against the victim D Deception, inducing the victim to part with property or act to his detriment
57. Question 57 of 100

    An appellate court's power to order a retrial under Chapter XXXI is generally exercised where:

    A The accused was acquitted and the prosecution has no further evidence to offer B The complainant requests it for no legal reason C There has been a material irregularity or defect vitiating the original trial D The appellate court simply disagrees with counsel's oratory style
58. Question 58 of 100

    Per the proviso to Article 54(2), the National Assembly must meet for not less than how many working days each year?

    A Ninety B One hundred and thirty C One hundred D One hundred and twenty
59. Question 59 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 7, what may happen if a defendant who was absent at a previous hearing appears at a later hearing and shows good cause for the earlier absence?

    A The suit must be restarted from the beginning as a fresh suit B The defendant is permanently barred from participating further C The plaintiff's claim is automatically dismissed as a penalty D The court may, in its discretion, allow the defendant to be heard as if he had appeared on the first hearing date
60. Question 60 of 100

    The existence of any state of mind, such as intention, knowledge, good faith, negligence, or of any state of body or bodily feeling, is treated as relevant when the existence of such state of mind or body is:

    A Itself in issue or relevant B Only relevant if admitted C Only relevant in criminal cases D Irrelevant to the case
61. Question 61 of 100

    Under Section 21, the words 'public servant' denote a person falling under any of the descriptions given in the Code, such as a Judge, or an officer whose duty is to:

    A Investigate, or to protect the public against injury, or to take, receive, keep or expend property on behalf of Government B Run a private business C Serve as a witness only D Practice private law only
62. Question 62 of 100

    What is the general relationship between an application under Section 47 CPC and a fresh, independent suit on the same execution dispute?

    A Section 47 applies only to money decrees, never to decrees for possession B An application under Section 47 is the exclusive route; a separate suit on the same dispute is barred C Only a fresh suit is permitted; Section 47 applications were abolished D Both remedies are always freely available and interchangeable at the party's option
63. Question 63 of 100

    The rule of estoppel is founded on principles of equity and good conscience, being designed to prevent a party from:

    A Filing any suit at all B Approbating and reprobating, i.e. blowing hot and cold C Being represented by counsel D Recovering any damages whatsoever
64. Question 64 of 100

    The general rule is that admissions must relate to facts and not to mere:

    A Statements of law or opinion B Statements about date C Statements about identity D Statements about signatures
65. Question 65 of 100

    Under Article 203E(4), a party before the Federal Shariat Court may be represented by a legal practitioner who is a Muslim and has been enrolled as an advocate of a High Court for not less than how many years (or be an Advocate of the Supreme Court)?

    A Three years B Five years C Fifteen years D Ten years
66. Question 66 of 100

    In assessing character evidence in civil cases, courts generally confine such evidence to matters directly relevant to the:

    A Personal habits of the parties unrelated to the suit B Religious beliefs of the parties C Political opinions of the parties D Facts in issue affecting the amount of damages, where applicable
67. Question 67 of 100

    Which rule addresses the duty to appear in Court when a matter is called, or to make satisfactory alternative arrangements?

    A Rule 159 B Rule 169 C Rule 170 D Rule 166
68. Question 68 of 100

    Under Order VI, what is the general effect if a party fails to specifically deny an allegation of fact made against them?

    A The fact may be treated as admitted by the court B The allegation is automatically struck out C The court must order a fresh trial D The case is automatically dismissed
69. Question 69 of 100

    The Maliki school of Islamic law was founded by:

    A Imam Ahmad ibn Hanbal B Imam al-Shafi'i C Imam Abu Hanifa D Imam Malik ibn Anas
70. Question 70 of 100

    The 'Ahl al-Hadith' (people of hadith), historically centered in Hijaz, were known for greater emphasis on:

    A Exclusive reliance on Ijma B Strict reliance on hadith and textual evidence over independent reasoning C Exclusive reliance on custom D Complete rejection of hadith
71. Question 71 of 100

    The presumption as to legitimacy of a child born during a valid marriage can be rebutted by proof of non-access between the spouses at the:

    A Time of divorce only B Time of the child's birth only C Time when the child could have been begotten D Time of the marriage ceremony
72. Question 72 of 100

    Secondary evidence may be given of a public document, since a certified copy of it may be given in evidence in preference to:

    A Expert opinion only B Primary evidence C Oral testimony only D Any other secondary evidence
73. Question 73 of 100

    Under Order VII, Rule 1, what must the essential contents of a plaint include?

    A Only the amount of court fee paid B Only a list of proposed witnesses C Only the name of the plaintiff D Details such as the parties' names, the facts constituting the cause of action, and the relief claimed
74. Question 74 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC governs appeals from original decrees?

    A Order XLIII B Order XXXIX C Order XLI D Order IX
75. Question 75 of 100

    Under Rule 156, whose voice must an advocate obey in discharging his professional duty to a client?

    A The client's conscience B The senior partner's direction C The presiding judge's personal preference D His own conscience, not that of his client
76. Question 76 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what is deemed to be included within 'share in a corporation'?

    A Stock, debenture-stock, debentures, or bonds B Only shares listed on a stock exchange C Only shares held by a single majority shareholder D Only fully paid-up ordinary shares
77. Question 77 of 100

    Distinguish Rule 174 from Rule 174-A: what is the key difference in what each addresses?

    A Rule 174 is about fees, Rule 174-A is about court attire B They are identical restatements of the same prohibition C Rule 174 applies only to judges, Rule 174-A only to civil servants D Rule 174 bars accepting employment on matters previously handled in a judicial or public capacity, while Rule 174-A bars using former designations like 'Ex-Judge' in practice
78. Question 78 of 100

    Under Order VII, Rule 11, besides an undisclosed cause of action and insufficient stamping, what other defect can lead to rejection of a plaint?

    A Where the plaintiff's advocate has less than five years of practice B Where the relief claimed is undervalued and the plaintiff fails to correct the valuation within the time fixed by the court C Where the defendant has not yet been served D Where the suit is filed on a Friday
79. Question 79 of 100

    According to the Kelsenian reasoning adopted in Dosso's case, what makes a revolutionary change in government legally valid?

    A Approval by the judiciary alone B Its efficacy or success in establishing control C Approval by foreign governments D A referendum of the people
80. Question 80 of 100

    Under Section 29, the word 'document' denotes any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks, or by more than one of those means, intended to be used, or which may be used, as evidence of:

    A That matter B A confession only C A judgment only D A public notice only
81. Question 81 of 100

    Where a number of documents are all made by one uniform process, such as printing or photography, each is primary evidence of the:

    A Original manuscript only B Contents of all the others C Contents of the rest D Certified copy alone
82. Question 82 of 100

    The principle of 'non-intervention' is closely linked with which broader principle of the UN Charter?

    A Self-determination B Sovereign equality of states C Collective security D Universal jurisdiction
83. Question 83 of 100

    Under Article 54(2), there shall be at least how many sessions of the National Assembly every year?

    A Two B Three C One D Four
84. Question 84 of 100

    Usul al-Fiqh is best described as:

    A A collection of hadith B A record of historical events C A book of Quranic recitation D The methodology/science of the sources and principles used to derive Shari'a rulings
85. Question 85 of 100

    The Court may presume that a message forwarded from a telegraph office to the person to whom it purports to be addressed corresponds with a message delivered for transmission, but the Court may not make any presumption as to the person by whom such message was:

    A Read B Delivered for transmission C Filed D Received
86. Question 86 of 100

    How did the Supreme Court's approach in Zafar Ali Shah's case compare to its approach in Asma Jilani's case regarding military takeovers?

    A It strictly applied Asma Jilani's reasoning and declared Musharraf a usurper B It found the takeover automatically void without any analysis C It returned to validating a military takeover via necessity, similar to Nusrat Bhutto, rather than condemning it as in Asma Jilani D It refused to rule on the matter entirely
87. Question 87 of 100

    What does Order VIII of the CPC specifically deal with?

    A The written statement B Temporary injunctions C Parties to suits D The plaint
88. Question 88 of 100

    Kelsen's Pure Theory of Law seeks to free legal theory from:

    A Political, moral and sociological elements B Legislative drafting rules C Constitutional principles D All forms of logic
89. Question 89 of 100

    Under Section 16 CPC, where must suits for recovery of immovable property generally be instituted?

    A The court within whose local jurisdiction the property is situated B The court within whose jurisdiction the plaintiff resides C The court within whose jurisdiction the defendant resides D Any High Court in Pakistan
90. Question 90 of 100

    Under Article 63(1)(h), conviction for an offence of moral turpitude with a sentence of at least how many years disqualifies a person, unless five years have elapsed since release?

    A Two years B One year C Three years D Five years
91. Question 91 of 100

    A public officer shall not be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence when he considers that the public interest would suffer by the:

    A Publication of the Gazette B Retention of the document C Non-disclosure D Disclosure
92. Question 92 of 100

    Under Rule 135, what is expressly NOT prohibited, despite the general bar on solicitation?

    A Ordinary professional cards, name plates, or conventional directory listings limited to professional/academic qualifications and public offices currently held B Paid social media promotion C Television advertising D Door-to-door solicitation
93. Question 93 of 100

    Under Order XXXIX, what is the underlying purpose of granting a temporary injunction?

    A To punish the defendant for delay B To transfer the suit to a higher court C To maintain and preserve the status quo at the time of institution of the proceedings D To finally determine the rights of the parties
94. Question 94 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 2's proviso, must a court dismiss the suit if the defendant appears in person or through an agent on the day fixed, despite non-service of summons?

    A Yes, unless the plaintiff pays a penalty fee B No, dismissal shall not be ordered in that circumstance C Yes, unless the defendant formally waives the service defect in writing D Yes, dismissal is mandatory regardless of the defendant's appearance
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, is an order of dismissal of a suit for default included within the definition of 'decree'?

    A Yes, but only if the dismissal is unopposed B No, it is expressly excluded from the definition of 'decree' C Yes, but only in suits exceeding a certain value D Yes, all dismissals are decrees
96. Question 96 of 100

    Under Rule 163, what is stated to be the primary duty of an advocate engaged in public prosecution?

    A To secure a conviction by any lawful means available B To prioritise the complainant's wishes above all else C Not to secure a conviction, but to see that justice is done D To act solely on the instructions of the police
97. Question 97 of 100

    Precedents which create new law where none existed before are called:

    A Original precedents B Conventional precedents C Declaratory precedents D Persuasive precedents
98. Question 98 of 100

    Distinguish Order XLI from Order XLIII: what is the core difference in what each Order addresses?

    A Order XLI applies only to interlocutory matters B They are identical in scope and purpose C Order XLI governs appeals from original decrees, while Order XLIII governs appeals from orders (a narrower, specifically listed category) D Order XLIII applies only to final decrees
99. Question 99 of 100

    Under Chapter XXXI, orders passed by an appellate court are, subject to certain exceptions such as reference to the High Court, generally treated as:

    A Final B Automatically suspended pending Presidential review C Automatically void D Always open to unlimited further appeal without restriction
100. Question 100 of 100

     Which constitutional provision empowered the President to dissolve the National Assembly, as exercised in this case?

     A Article 199 B Article 245 C Article 58(2)(b) of the Constitution D Article 184(3)

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