Law GAT Mock Test 8

1. Question 1 of 100

   Under Rule 142, whose precedence, established by constitutional usage and practice, must an advocate respect?

   A The senior-most judge present B The President of the Bar Association C The Chief Justice alone D The Attorney-General and the Advocate-General
2. Question 2 of 100

   A statement of an admission may be proved by or on behalf of the person making it under the general rule that a person cannot create evidence for himself, subject to certain exceptions such as when it is a statement relevant otherwise than as an:

   A Expert opinion B Judgment C Admission D Confession
3. Question 3 of 100

   Article 16 relates to the relevancy of the existence of a course of business as bearing on the question whether a particular act was:

   A Voidable B Malicious C Done D Compoundable
4. Question 4 of 100

   What is the general relationship between Section 115 (revision) and Section 151 (inherent powers) of the CPC?

   A Section 115 provides a specific statutory remedy for jurisdictional errors, while Section 151 is a broader, residual power invoked where no specific provision of the Code addresses the situation B They are entirely interchangeable with no distinction in scope C Section 151 can only be invoked after Section 115 has already been exhausted in every case D Section 115 applies only to criminal matters
5. Question 5 of 100

   Under Rule 156, is it proper for an advocate to assert in argument his personal belief in his client's innocence or the justice of the client's cause?

   A No, this is described as improper B Yes, if the client requests it C Yes, provided it is sincerely held D Yes, in criminal matters only
6. Question 6 of 100

   Section 82 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of:

   A Seven years B Ten years C Twelve years D Fourteen years
7. Question 7 of 100

   Which organ of the UN can request an Advisory Opinion from the ICJ as of right?

   A NGOs B General Assembly C Member states individually D Regional organizations
8. Question 8 of 100

   The general rule is that a witness compelled to answer an incriminating question is entitled to protection against that answer being used as evidence against him in any subsequent:

   A Appeal by the complainant only B Criminal proceeding, except a prosecution for giving false evidence C Departmental inquiry only D Civil suit for damages
9. Question 9 of 100

   Chapter XXXI of the Cr.P.C. deals with:

   A Appeals B Security for good behaviour C Public nuisance D Bail
10. Question 10 of 100

    Section 383 defines 'extortion' as intentionally putting any person in fear of injury, and thereby dishonestly inducing that person to deliver to any person any property, or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a:

    A Confession B Valuable security C Public document D Judgment
11. Question 11 of 100

    Under Rule 162, is marked attention and unusual hospitality by an advocate toward a judge, not called for by personal relations, considered appropriate?

    A Yes, in social settings outside the courtroom B Yes, provided it is publicly disclosed C No, it should be avoided as it subjects both to misconstruction of motive D Yes, it demonstrates proper respect for the judiciary
12. Question 12 of 100

    Under Article 212(2), where such an Administrative Court/Tribunal is established under Article 212(1), no other court (including a High Court) shall grant an injunction, make any order, or entertain any proceedings with respect to matters within that Tribunal's jurisdiction, EXCEPT as provided by which Article?

    A Article 199, without restriction B Article 184, without restriction C No exception exists at all D Article 212(3), allowing appeal to the Supreme Court with leave
13. Question 13 of 100

    A summons under Section 94 requiring production of a document may be addressed to any person, including one who is:

    A Only a police officer B Only the accused himself C Only a Magistrate D Not otherwise a party to the proceeding
14. Question 14 of 100

    Moulvi Tamizuddin Khan held which position at the time the case arose?

    A Prime Minister of Pakistan B President of the Constituent Assembly C Chief Justice of Pakistan D Governor-General of Pakistan
15. Question 15 of 100

    The science dealing with the criticism, classification and authentication of hadith narrators and reports is called:

    A Ilm al-Kalam B Ilm al-Fiqh only C Ilm al-Hadith (Hadith methodology/science) D Ilm al-Tafsir
16. Question 16 of 100

    Under Order XLI, Rule 10, what may an appellate court demand from an appellant before or after the respondent is called upon to answer?

    A Security for the costs of the appeal, of the original suit, or of both B A certificate of good character from the Bar Council C A full deposit of the decretal amount in all cases without exception D Written consent from the respondent to proceed
17. Question 17 of 100

    Under Section 3 CPC, what is the general hierarchy of civil courts for the purposes of the Code?

    A The High Court is subordinate to the District Court in matters of first instance B Subordination is determined case-by-case by the Provincial Government C All civil courts are of equal, coordinate standing D The District Court is subordinate to the High Court, and every court of a grade inferior to a District Court is subordinate to both the High Court and the District Court
18. Question 18 of 100

    The threshold for Supreme Court appellate jurisdiction under Article 185(2)(d) was raised from fifty thousand rupees to one million rupees by which amendment?

    A The 18th Amendment, 2010 B The 27th Amendment, 2025 C The 26th Amendment, 2024 D The 25th Amendment, 2018
19. Question 19 of 100

    According to Kelsen, law is a system of:

    A Norms arranged in a hierarchical order B Commands of a single sovereign C Customs of ancient societies D Moral principles
20. Question 20 of 100

    A statement forming part of a longer statement, conversation, or document is relevant as an admission only if it is required to make intelligible the sense of:

    A The FIR alone B That part of the statement, conversation or document C The judgment of the trial court D Any other document in the record
21. Question 21 of 100

    Presumptions as to documents are generally categorized as 'may presume', meaning the Court has:

    A Discretion whether or not to presume, regard being had to the circumstances B To always refuse the presumption C No discretion and must presume D To always refer the matter to an expert
22. Question 22 of 100

    A defendant fails to appear despite being properly served, and an ex parte decree is passed against him. He later shows the court he was seriously ill on the hearing date and could not attend. What is his general remedy?

    A Appeal directly to the Supreme Court B Apply under Order XXXIX for an injunction C File a fresh suit on the same matter D Apply under Order IX to have the ex parte decree set aside, by showing sufficient cause for non-appearance
23. Question 23 of 100

    For a dying declaration to be relevant, it is not necessary that the person making it should have been under a expectation of death, provided the statement relates to the:

    A Civil debt owed to him B Property dispute unrelated to death C Character of the accused D Cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death
24. Question 24 of 100

    Which chapter of the UN Charter authorizes action with respect to threats to peace?

    A Chapter VIII B Chapter VII C Chapter V D Chapter VI
25. Question 25 of 100

    Under Article 64(2), a House may declare a member's seat vacant if he remains absent, without leave, for how many consecutive days of its sittings?

    A Sixty days B Ninety days C Thirty days D Forty days
26. Question 26 of 100

    Under Order VII, is a plaint's statement of jurisdiction facts a mere formality, or does the plaintiff need to show facts actually establishing jurisdiction?

    A A bare, unsupported assertion of jurisdiction is always sufficient B The plaintiff must show facts actually establishing that the chosen court has jurisdiction C Jurisdiction need not be addressed in the plaint at all D Jurisdiction is established solely by the defendant's failure to object
27. Question 27 of 100

    What is the essential difference between an 'order' and a 'decree' under Section 2 CPC?

    A A decree is issued only by the High Court, while an order may be issued by any court B There is no meaningful difference between the two terms C An order is always appealable, while a decree is never appealable D A decree conclusively determines the parties' rights in a suit and follows a formal adjudication, while an order is the formal expression of any court decision that does not meet the definition of a decree
28. Question 28 of 100

    Section 209 deals with the:

    A Grant of bail in the Court of Session B Commitment of a case to the Court of Session where the offence is triable exclusively by that Court C Dismissal of a complaint under Section 203 D Recording of a confession under Section 164
29. Question 29 of 100

    Under Rule 146's proviso, is an advocate who was never formally engaged or paid by a person precluded from later accepting employment adverse to that person's interest?

    A No, he is not precluded in that specific circumstance B Yes, in all circumstances without exception C Yes, for a minimum of five years D Yes, unless the Bar Council grants permission
30. Question 30 of 100

    Witnesses shall first be examined-in-chief, then, if the adverse party so desires, cross-examined, and then, if the party calling him so desires,:

    A Recalled by the Court suo motu B Re-examined C Discharged without further questions D Committed for perjury
31. Question 31 of 100

    'Istishab' in Usul al-Fiqh refers to the principle of:

    A Presuming the continuation of an existing legal status until evidence proves otherwise B Analogical reasoning C Consensus of jurists D Blocking lawful means to prevent harm
32. Question 32 of 100

    Section 337-A generally deals with punishment for shajjah, distinguishing degrees such as shajjah-i-khafifah and shajjah-i-mudihah, based on the:

    A Gender of the offender only B Age of the victim only C Severity or depth of the injury to the head or face D Financial status of the parties only
33. Question 33 of 100

    An admission by a predecessor-in-interest is relevant against a successor-in-interest if made:

    A Only after the predecessor's death B After the interest was transferred C During the continuance of the predecessor's interest D Only in a registered document
34. Question 34 of 100

    Following the ruling of a qualified jurist without independently examining the evidence is called:

    A Ijma B Qiyas C Taqlid D Ijtihad
35. Question 35 of 100

    The presumption as to due execution of documents thirty years old is a rebuttable presumption, meaning it can be displaced by:

    A An estoppel only B No evidence whatsoever C Judicial notice alone D Evidence to the contrary
36. Question 36 of 100

    Who was the President of Pakistan who dissolved the National Assembly leading to this case?

    A Farooq Leghari B Ghulam Ishaq Khan C Rafiq Tarar D Pervez Musharraf
37. Question 37 of 100

    Evidence of similar facts is generally admitted with caution, being relevant chiefly where it tends to prove a system, a particular intention, or the absence of:

    A A public document B Accident or mistake C Any admission D Any confession
38. Question 38 of 100

    Section 333 defines 'shajjah' as hurt affecting the:

    A Legs only B Head or face C Chest only D Internal organs only
39. Question 39 of 100

    Entries in books of account, including electronic records, regularly kept in the course of business are, in themselves, generally treated as:

    A Presumptive proof of forgery B Relevant but not sufficient alone to charge a person with liability C Conclusive proof of a liability, without more D Irrelevant
40. Question 40 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what is a 'judgment' defined as?

    A Any order of the court B The formal decree itself C The plaint filed by the plaintiff D The statement given by the judge of the grounds of a decree or order
41. Question 41 of 100

    Section 103 enumerates offences against property, such as robbery, house-breaking by night, and mischief by fire on a building used as a human dwelling, in respect of which the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of:

    A Compensation only B Simple hurt only C Death D Wrongful confinement only
42. Question 42 of 100

    The Asma Jilani case is considered a landmark primarily because it:

    A Abolished the office of President B Introduced the doctrine of necessity for the first time C Restored the primacy of the Constitution over arbitrary executive/military action D Created the Federal Shariat Court
43. Question 43 of 100

    Under the proviso to Section 160, certain categories of persons, such as women and males under a specified age or persons of unsound mind/infirmity, are generally:

    A Automatically presumed guilty B Not required to attend at any place other than their own residence C Compelled to attend the police station regardless of circumstances D Exempted from giving any statement whatsoever, even at their residence
44. Question 44 of 100

    What event led to the filing of petitions in the Zafar Ali Shah case?

    A The 1958 martial law B The military takeover of 12 October 1999 by General Pervez Musharraf C The 1977 coup by General Zia-ul-Haq D The 1993 dissolution of the National Assembly
45. Question 45 of 100

    The minimum age for National Assembly candidacy was lowered to 25 years and minimum voting age fixed at 18 years primarily through the combined effect of which historical reform and amendment?

    A The 8th Amendment, 1985 only B The 21st Amendment, 2015 C The 1973 Constitution's original unamended text only D The 18th Amendment, 2010 (voting age) and earlier constitutional provisions (candidacy age)
46. Question 46 of 100

    The generation following the companions of the Prophet (PBUH) is known as the:

    A Tabi' al-Tabi'in only B Mujtahidun only C Tabi'un (Successors) D Sahaba
47. Question 47 of 100

    What common purpose links Order VI and Order VII of the CPC?

    A Both concern appellate procedure exclusively B Both concern the formal requirements of pleadings — Order VI generally, and Order VII specifically as to the plaint C Both concern execution of decrees exclusively D Both concern the law of evidence exclusively
48. Question 48 of 100

    When the terms of a contract, grant or other disposition of property have been reduced to the form of a document, no evidence shall be given in proof of the terms of such contract, grant or disposition except the document itself, or secondary evidence of its contents where admissible, this being the rule on:

    A Exclusion of oral evidence to explain ambiguous documents B Admissions in civil cases C Judicial notice of contracts D Exclusion of evidence of terms of contracts reduced to writing
49. Question 49 of 100

    Under Rule 152, may an advocate advise a client to violate the law?

    A Yes, provided it is given informally B No, except that this rule does not prohibit good-faith advice that a particular law is invalid C Yes, if the client insists D Yes, in commercial disputes only
50. Question 50 of 100

    Article 1 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order provides for its short title and:

    A Creation of new courts B Repeal of the Constitution C Extent and commencement D Amendment of the Penal Code
51. Question 51 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, is a written judgment or decree considered 'signed' if it is merely stamped, rather than personally signed?

    A No — the definition of 'signed' includes stamping only for documents other than a judgment or decree B Yes, but only for interlocutory orders C Yes, stamping always satisfies signature requirements D Yes, if the stamp bears the judge's name
52. Question 52 of 100

    Under Article 50, oral evidence in all cases whatever must be direct, subject to the special exceptions carved out for statements by persons who cannot be called as:

    A Experts B Public Prosecutors C Witnesses D Judges
53. Question 53 of 100

    Section 404 provides that no appeal shall lie from any judgment or order of a criminal court except:

    A In every case, without any statutory basis required B Only where the High Court grants special leave in every single case C Only where the accused was sentenced to death D As provided by the Cr.P.C. or any other law for the time being in force
54. Question 54 of 100

    Sir Thomas Erskine Holland defined law as a general rule of external human action enforced by a:

    A Court B Religious body C Sovereign political authority D Custom
55. Question 55 of 100

    Under Article 11(2), all forms of forced labour are prohibited except:

    A Domestic work for family members B Military service during peacetime C Apprenticeship without pay D Punishment for a crime
56. Question 56 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 6, what may a court do if the plaintiff appears but the defendant does not appear when the suit is called for hearing, despite proper service?

    A Strike the plaintiff's claim from the record B Order the suit to be heard ex parte C Automatically dismiss the suit D Adjourn the suit indefinitely
57. Question 57 of 100

    Which rule prohibits an advocate from advising a client to violate the law?

    A Rule 151 B Rule 156 C Rule 152 D Rule 172
58. Question 58 of 100

    The burden of proving a fact always lies upon the person who asserts it affirmatively, and generally not on the person who:

    A Denies it B Is a co-accused C Is an expert witness D Admits it
59. Question 59 of 100

    Under which provision does an appeal lie against an order granting or refusing a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX?

    A Order IX, Rule 6 B Order VII, Rule 11 C Order XLIII, Rule 1 D Order VI, Rule 17
60. Question 60 of 100

    Section 89 provides protection for acts done in good faith for the benefit of a person under twelve years of age, or of unsound mind, by or with the consent of the guardian, subject to specified exceptions such as causing:

    A Any harm whatsoever, without exception B Any inconvenience however minor C Death, unless done to prevent death or grievous hurt, or grievous hurt, unless similarly justified D Only bodily pain but not death
61. Question 61 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC deals with pleadings generally?

    A Order VIII B Order VII C Order I D Order VI
62. Question 62 of 100

    Which chapter of the UN Charter deals with pacific settlement of disputes?

    A Chapter VII B Chapter VIII C Chapter V D Chapter VI
63. Question 63 of 100

    Under Rule 158, in incidental matters not affecting the merits of a cause (such as agreeing to an extension of time for filing), who is generally allowed to judge for himself?

    A The court registrar B The advocate C The client, exclusively D The opposing advocate
64. Question 64 of 100

    Section 91 clarifies that the exceptions in Sections 87, 88 and 89 do not extend to acts which are offences independently of any harm which they may cause, or be intended to cause, or be known to be likely to cause, to the person giving consent or on whose behalf consent is given, giving as an example an act done to procure a:

    A Confession B Dying declaration C Miscarriage D Public document
65. Question 65 of 100

    Excessive bail amounts are specifically prohibited under Section 499 so as to avoid:

    A Reducing the workload of the appellate court B Bail being rendered illusory or an instrument of oppression against the accused C Reducing the workload of the police D Encouraging habitual offenders
66. Question 66 of 100

    Under Article 73, a Money Bill must originate in which House?

    A Either House equally B The Senate C A joint sitting only D The National Assembly
67. Question 67 of 100

    Section 355 punishes assault or criminal force with intent to dishonour a person, otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation, particularly if not committed on the:

    A Same day as a civil suit B Same day as a marriage ceremony C Person's own body directly D Person's own property
68. Question 68 of 100

    Under Chapter VII, a search is generally required to be conducted, as far as practicable, during:

    A Only on court holidays B Daytime, unless circumstances otherwise justify a search at night C Only after a full trial has concluded D Night-time only
69. Question 69 of 100

    Which section of the CPC provides the general rule that suits should be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try them?

    A Section 16 B Section 9 C Section 20 D Section 15
70. Question 70 of 100

    Ihering's famous work on the purpose of law is titled:

    A Pure Theory of Law B Ancient Law C The Concept of Law D Law as a Means to an End (Der Zweck im Recht)
71. Question 71 of 100

    Under Rule 162, may an advocate communicate or argue privately with a judge as to the merits of a pending cause?

    A Yes, with the opposing party's informal awareness B Yes, provided a written record is kept C Yes, if done respectfully D No
72. Question 72 of 100

    Secondary evidence of the contents of a document may also be given when the original has been destroyed or lost, and this fact is:

    A Presumed conclusively without proof B Irrelevant to the mode of proof C Never allowed to be proved by oral evidence D Proved to the satisfaction of the Court
73. Question 73 of 100

    Article 103 of the UN Charter establishes what principle?

    A Regional treaties take precedence B Customary law prevails over the Charter C Treaties prevail over the Charter D Charter obligations prevail over conflicting treaty obligations
74. Question 74 of 100

    The burden of proving any fact necessary to be proved in order to enable a person to give evidence of another fact lies on the person who wishes to give:

    A A confession B A dying declaration C An admission of the opposite party D Such evidence
75. Question 75 of 100

    The credit of a witness may also be impeached by proof of former statements inconsistent with any part of his evidence, this generally being introduced by:

    A Confronting him with the prior inconsistent statement B Producing a certified copy of a public document only C An expert opinion D A dying declaration
76. Question 76 of 100

    How many non-permanent members does the UN Security Council have?

    A 12 B 10 C 15 D 5
77. Question 77 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order XLI allows dismissal of an appeal, without notice to the lower court, where the appellant fails to appear at the hearing?

    A Rule 23 B Rule 10 C Rule 11 D Rule 27
78. Question 78 of 100

    The overall object of Chapter XXXI is to provide a structured mechanism for:

    A Correction of errors of fact or law by a superior criminal court B The grant of anticipatory bail exclusively C The initial recording of the FIR D The initial framing of charges by the trial court
79. Question 79 of 100

    Section 358 provides that assault or criminal force on grave and sudden provocation given by the person assaulted attracts a lesser punishment, provided the offender does not intend, and knows himself not likely, to cause harm beyond what is necessary for:

    A Retaliation B Self-defence C Punishing the provocateur excessively D Public entertainment
80. Question 80 of 100

    Which rule cautions against unusual hospitality toward a judge and private communication about the merits of a pending case?

    A Rule 165 B Rule 159 C Rule 162 D Rule 138
81. Question 81 of 100

    What was the principal subject matter of the Al-Jehad Trust case?

    A Appointment, seniority, and confirmation of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts B Dissolution of the National Assembly C The structure of local government D Validity of martial law
82. Question 82 of 100

    Under Article 84, if in respect of any financial year a need arises for supplementary or excess expenditure beyond the authorized amount, the Federal Government must cause to be laid a:

    A Supplementary Budget Statement or Excess Budget Statement B New Annual Budget Statement C Money Bill amendment notice D Presidential Ordinance
83. Question 83 of 100

    A dying declaration is relevant in any proceeding in which the cause of that person's death comes into:

    A Dispute regarding property only B An appeal against acquittal only C Question D A civil suit for damages only
84. Question 84 of 100

    Under Article 72(4), decisions at a joint sitting of both Houses are taken by:

    A Votes of the majority of members present and voting B Two-thirds majority of total membership C A simple majority of the National Assembly alone D Unanimous consent
85. Question 85 of 100

    Under Order VII, Rule 11, is a plaint liable to rejection where it is written on paper insufficiently stamped and the plaintiff fails to supply the required stamp paper when so ordered?

    A Only after the trial has concluded B No, stamp duty defects can never justify rejection of a plaint C No, only the defendant may raise stamp duty defects D Yes
86. Question 86 of 100

    Jurisprudence is most commonly described as:

    A A political ideology B The science of law C A branch of history D The art of pleading
87. Question 87 of 100

    Where the existence of a public right is denied under Chapter X, the Magistrate is generally required to:

    A Convict the person summarily B Refer the matter exclusively to a civil court with no further magisterial role C Immediately dismiss the case without inquiry D Inquire into the matter before proceeding further
88. Question 88 of 100

    In Qiyas, the 'Far'' refers to the:

    A A fabricated report B Original textually-ruled case C New case for which a ruling is sought by analogy D The consensus of jurists
89. Question 89 of 100

    Article 191 empowers the Federal Constitutional Court and Supreme Court to make rules regulating their own practice and procedure, subject to:

    A Approval from the Ministry of Law and Justice B The Constitution and any Act of Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) C No restriction whatsoever D Provincial High Court consent
90. Question 90 of 100

    Sureties furnished for a bail bond are generally required to be persons of:

    A Relation to the complainant only B No means whatsoever C Relation to the investigating officer only D Sufficient means and standing satisfactory to the court
91. Question 91 of 100

    Under Section 11's Explanation I, what is meant by a 'former suit' for the purposes of res judicata?

    A A suit decided prior to the suit in question, regardless of when it was instituted B Only a suit between the same two named individuals, never their legal representatives C Only a suit decided by the same judge D Only a suit instituted before the current one, regardless of when decided
92. Question 92 of 100

    Article 13(b) protects an accused from being compelled to:

    A Disclose his lawyer's identity B Be a witness against himself C Appear in court D Pay bail
93. Question 93 of 100

    Which of the following jurists is associated with 'free law' movement, arguing judges should have discretion beyond strict statutory text?

    A Eugen Ehrlich B John Austin C Savigny D Kelsen
94. Question 94 of 100

    Section 441 defines 'criminal trespass' as entering into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence, or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or, having lawfully entered, unlawfully remaining there with intent to:

    A Attend a court proceeding B Commit a lawful contract C Register a public document D Intimidate, insult, or annoy such person, or with intent to commit an offence
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what term describes the formal expression of any decision of a civil court which is NOT a decree?

    A Order B Decree C Judgment D Ruling
96. Question 96 of 100

    Presumptions as to documents, generally, operate to shift the burden onto the party disputing the document to lead evidence:

    A That is irrelevant B Rebutting the presumption C Of judicial notice only D Of character only
97. Question 97 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order IX addresses dismissal where neither the plaintiff nor the defendant appears?

    A Rule 2 B Rule 7 C Rule 3 D Rule 9
98. Question 98 of 100

    Distinguish Rule 160 from Rule 161: what is the key difference in what each prohibits?

    A Rule 160 applies to judges, Rule 161 applies to witnesses B They are identical restatements of the same prohibition C Rule 160 concerns advising a witness to become unavailable, while Rule 161 concerns misquoting testimony, arguments, or authorities to the court D Rule 160 applies only to civil cases, Rule 161 only to criminal cases
99. Question 99 of 100

    Under Order VI, if a party pleads that certain conditions precedent were fulfilled before a contract was made, what must they do?

    A Obtain the court's prior approval before pleading this B Specifically mention that the conditions were fulfilled C File a separate application D Nothing; conditions precedent are presumed fulfilled unless denied
100. Question 100 of 100

     Under Order VI, is it generally required that pleadings be initialled by the parties or their counsel?

     A Only for pleadings exceeding a certain length B No, initialling is never required C Yes D Only for pleadings filed in the High Court

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