Law GAT Mock Test 10

1. Question 1 of 100

   A plaintiff sues for possession of a house located in Multan, but the defendant resides in Lahore. Under Section 16 CPC, in which court should the suit generally be instituted?

   A Either court, entirely at the plaintiff's unrestricted discretion B The court within whose jurisdiction the property (in Multan) is situated C The court within whose jurisdiction the defendant resides (Lahore) D The High Court, as the suit concerns immovable property
2. Question 2 of 100

   Which of the following philosophers linked natural law with the idea of 'right reason' (recta ratio)?

   A Austin B Kelsen C Bentham D Cicero
3. Question 3 of 100

   The Sociological school generally supports using law as an instrument for:

   A Enforcing religious doctrine B Preserving ancient customs unchanged C Purely logical classification of concepts D Social reform and progress
4. Question 4 of 100

   Facts which show the existence of any custom or right, and particular instances in which the right was recognized, are relevant when the question is one of:

   A Existence of a general right or custom B Presumption of legitimacy C Estoppel by record D Character alone
5. Question 5 of 100

   Interpretation/commentary of the Quran is technically called:

   A Fiqh B Ijma C Tafsir D Hadith
6. Question 6 of 100

   Under Section 11, the word 'person' includes any company or association, or body of persons, whether:

   A Incorporated or not B Registered abroad only C Only incorporated D Only unincorporated
7. Question 7 of 100

   Jean-Jacques Rousseau's version of the social contract emphasized the:

   A General will of the people B Command of the sovereign monarch C Utility principle D Historical spirit of the nation
8. Question 8 of 100

   Under Rule 141, is division of fees for legal services with any person generally proper?

   A Yes, without restriction B Yes, with any referral source C Yes, with paralegal staff D No, except with another advocate, based on an agreed principle of division of work
9. Question 9 of 100

   Article 204 grants superior courts the power to punish for which type of conduct?

   A Contempt of court B Electoral malpractice C Tax evasion D Defamation
10. Question 10 of 100

    Article 38(d) directs the State to provide basic necessities of life, such as food, clothing, housing, education, and medical relief, for all citizens who are:

    A Below the poverty line by income test B Government employees only C Permanently or temporarily unable to earn their livelihood due to infirmity, sickness, unemployment, etc. D Living in rural areas only
11. Question 11 of 100

    Under Order XLIII, Rule 1(r), what specific type of order is made appealable?

    A Orders relating to the framing of issues only B Orders relating to court fees only C Orders relating to the transfer of a suit only D Orders under Order XXXIX, Rules 1, 2, 2A, 4, and 10, relating to injunctions
12. Question 12 of 100

    For Ijma to be valid, the consensus must be reached by:

    A A single ruler alone B Non-Muslims and Muslims jointly C Any Muslim, regardless of qualification D Qualified Mujtahids of a given period after the Prophet's (PBUH) death
13. Question 13 of 100

    In what year were the Pakistan Legal Practitioners and Bar Councils Rules, under which Chapter XII falls, formulated?

    A 1973 B 1962 C 1947 D 1976
14. Question 14 of 100

    Under Article 175A(18)-(19), if a High Court judge's performance is found unsatisfactory even after an improvement period, the Commission sends its report to:

    A The Parliamentary Committee B The Supreme Judicial Council C The Federal Constitutional Court D The President directly
15. Question 15 of 100

    Rules 145-158 and Rules 159-167 both regulate an advocate's conduct, but toward different parties. Who is the focus of each, respectively?

    A Both sets focus exclusively on the public generally B Rules 145-158 focus on opposing counsel; Rules 159-167 focus on the client C Both sets focus exclusively on the client D Rules 145-158 focus on the client; Rules 159-167 focus on the Court
16. Question 16 of 100

    A tenant of immovable property, or a person claiming through such tenant, is not permitted, during the continuance of the tenancy, to deny that the landlord had, at the beginning of the tenancy, a:

    A Confession recorded B Public document C Criminal record D Title to such immovable property
17. Question 17 of 100

    The burden of proving that a will was validly executed, where its execution is disputed, generally lies upon the party who:

    A Is a stranger to the estate B Denies the will C Propounds or relies upon the will D Is the presiding Judge
18. Question 18 of 100

    A person invoking the estoppel arising from a licence or tenancy cannot do so unless he can show that he acted upon the representation of title or authority to his:

    A Advantage in a wholly unrelated transaction B Detriment or that his position was altered because of it C Benefit as a witness only D Benefit under a subsequent contract
19. Question 19 of 100

    The Court may presume the existence of certain facts, such as the genuineness of a certified copy of a document, under the provisions relating to:

    A Privileged communications B Presumptions as to documents C Estoppel D Judicial notice
20. Question 20 of 100

    Under Article 59(3), the term of Senate members (who are not subject to dissolution of the House) is:

    A Six years B Four years C Five years D Three years
21. Question 21 of 100

    Under Rule 174, after retiring from public office, may an advocate accept employment connected to a matter he investigated or dealt with while in that office?

    A No, nor employment except in support of his earlier position B Yes, provided the matter is now closed C Yes, after a two-year cooling-off period D Yes, freely after retirement
22. Question 22 of 100

    Article 29(2) states that observance of a Principle of Policy is subject to:

    A Approval by the Senate B Presidential assent C Availability of resources D A two-thirds majority vote
23. Question 23 of 100

    The type of process issued under Section 204 (summons or warrant) generally depends on the nature of the case and the:

    A Magistrate's assessment of the circumstances, including whether it is a summons-case or warrant-case B Complainant's personal preference alone, binding on the Magistrate C Investigating officer's rank alone D Accused's own request alone
24. Question 24 of 100

    Section 376 provides the punishment for rape, which includes death or imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

    A One year B No minimum, at the Court's unfettered discretion C One month D Ten years, extending up to twenty-five years, or death
25. Question 25 of 100

    A witness is not excused from answering a question relevant to the matter in issue merely on the ground that the answer may:

    A Be self-serving B Establish that he owes a debt or is otherwise subject to a civil suit C Involve a public document D Incriminate him of an offence, subject to protection against subsequent use of a compelled answer as evidence against him in a criminal proceeding
26. Question 26 of 100

    Section 108 deals with security for good behaviour required from persons:

    A Merely suspected of theft B Granted anticipatory bail C Disseminating seditious matter D Convicted of a bailable offence
27. Question 27 of 100

    Section 157 requires the officer in charge of a police station, upon receiving information of a cognizable offence, to:

    A Proceed to the spot to investigate the facts and circumstances, and if necessary, take measures for the discovery and arrest of the offender B Wait for the trial court's directions before doing anything C Take no action unless a Magistrate personally directs every step D Refer the matter to a civil court
28. Question 28 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 9, before an order restoring a suit dismissed under Rule 8 is made, what must generally occur?

    A Notice of the application must be served on the opposite party B The original judge must have retired or been transferred C The matter must first be referred to the High Court D Nothing further is required once the application is filed
29. Question 29 of 100

    Article 77 provides that no tax shall be levied for purposes of the Federation except by or under authority of:

    A An Act of Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) B An executive notification C A Presidential Order D A Provincial Assembly resolution
30. Question 30 of 100

    Section 85 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, provided the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him:

    A By a family member with consent B By his own free choice and knowledge C By a licensed physician for treatment D Without his knowledge or against his will
31. Question 31 of 100

    Section 337-L generally provides for ta'zir in respect of hurt not otherwise specifically provided for, or where qisas is not applicable, or hurt caused by mistake, with punishment which may include:

    A Imprisonment and/or fine, together with daman where applicable B Only a civil suit for damages C Only capital punishment D No punishment whatsoever
32. Question 32 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who is a 'decree-holder'?

    A Any advocate who argued the successful side of a case B Only the plaintiff, regardless of the outcome of the suit C Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed, or an order capable of execution has been made D Only a person who has already fully executed the decree
33. Question 33 of 100

    The veto power in the Security Council applies to which type of matters?

    A Procedural matters only B Budgetary matters only C Substantive (non-procedural) matters D Admission of new members only
34. Question 34 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order IX allows a plaintiff to apply to set aside a dismissal made under Rule 8, by showing sufficient cause?

    A Rule 9 B Rule 3 C Rule 5 D Rule 7
35. Question 35 of 100

    The Quran is regarded in Islamic law as the:

    A A source only for worship matters B A historical document with no legal authority C First and primary source of Shari'a D Secondary source after Ijma
36. Question 36 of 100

    Under Section 17 CPC, where may a suit be instituted if immovable property lies within the jurisdiction of different courts?

    A Only in the court with the largest portion of the property B In any court within whose local limits any portion of the property is situated, provided the entire claim is cognizable by that court C Only in the High Court D In every relevant court simultaneously
37. Question 37 of 100

    The Tamizuddin Khan case is widely regarded as the starting point of which recurring theme in Pakistan's constitutional history?

    A Permanent supremacy of Parliament B Judicial validation of extra-constitutional executive actions C Strict judicial independence from the executive D Abolition of the office of Governor-General
38. Question 38 of 100

    An act that is disliked but not punishable is called:

    A Makruh B Haram C Mubah D Wajib
39. Question 39 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order XLI allows an appellate court to demand security for costs from an appellant?

    A Rule 27 B Rule 10 C Rule 11 D Rule 23
40. Question 40 of 100

    Under Section 12 CPC (bar to further suit), what happens where a plaintiff is precluded by the rules from instituting a further suit on a cause of action?

    A He may still sue in any court outside the original jurisdiction B He must wait one year before refiling C He shall not be entitled to institute a suit on that cause of action in any court to which the Code applies D He may only refile with the defendant's consent
41. Question 41 of 100

    A 'legal person' in jurisprudence includes both natural persons and:

    A Deities only B Juristic/artificial persons (e.g., corporations) C Inanimate objects with no legal capacity D Animals only
42. Question 42 of 100

    Under Rule 149, may an advocate purchase property at a probate, foreclosure, or judicial sale in a proceeding in which he himself appears for a party?

    A Yes, if the sale is by public auction B Yes, provided the price is fair market value C No, neither in his own name nor benami D Yes, with the court's prior approval
43. Question 43 of 100

    The power to summon production of documents under Chapter VII may be exercised in aid of:

    A Only a departmental inquiry B Only a constitutional petition C Only a civil suit for damages D An investigation, inquiry, trial or other proceeding under the Code
44. Question 44 of 100

    Under Rule 169, can the client be made the keeper of the advocate's conscience in professional matters, such as the conduct of a trial?

    A Yes, entirely B Yes, but only in criminal matters C Yes, but only regarding settlement decisions D No
45. Question 45 of 100

    What was the final outcome of the Supreme Court's decision in this case?

    A The dissolution order was declared unconstitutional, and the National Assembly along with the Sharif government was restored B Martial law was imposed as a result C The dissolution was upheld and fresh elections were ordered immediately D The Supreme Court declined jurisdiction
46. Question 46 of 100

    Under Rule 156, does the office of an advocate permit the violation of law or any manner of fraud or chicanery for a client?

    A Yes, provided it is not discovered B Yes, in exceptional urgent circumstances C No D Yes, if the client insists and pays accordingly
47. Question 47 of 100

    The rule that a person arrested must be produced before a Magistrate within a limited period (commonly cited as twenty-four hours, excluding travel time) is generally associated with:

    A Section 496 of the Cr.P.C. B Section 4 of the Cr.P.C. C Section 61 of the Cr.P.C., read with Article 10 of the Constitution D Section 200 of the Cr.P.C.
48. Question 48 of 100

    When was the United Nations Charter signed?

    A 1 January 1946 B 10 December 1948 C 24 October 1945 D 26 June 1945
49. Question 49 of 100

    Where an appellate court alters a finding of guilt from one offence to another while maintaining the sentence, this reflects the court's power, under Chapter XXXI, to:

    A Refer the matter for a completely fresh FIR B Alter the finding while maintaining or altering the sentence, subject to the law C Only acquit the accused outright with no alternative D Only affirm the trial court's judgment verbatim with no changes permitted
50. Question 50 of 100

    The Convention Against Torture was adopted by the UN General Assembly in which year?

    A 1984 B 1966 C 1979 D 1989
51. Question 51 of 100

    Article 50 provides that all facts, except the contents of documents, may be proved by:

    A Documentary evidence only B Presumptions only C Judicial notice only D Oral evidence
52. Question 52 of 100

    Which Article of the UN Charter deals with non-military sanctions?

    A Article 43 B Article 41 C Article 42 D Article 39
53. Question 53 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order IX addresses dismissal where the plaintiff fails, after unserved summons, to apply for fresh summons within the prescribed period?

    A Rule 8 B Rule 5 C Rule 2 D Rule 3
54. Question 54 of 100

    Chapter XVII procedurally follows the stage at which a Magistrate, under Chapter XVI or on a police report, decides that there is sufficient ground to:

    A Proceed against the accused B Dismiss the case permanently C Refer the matter to arbitration D Grant automatic bail with no conditions
55. Question 55 of 100

    Section 322 defines 'qatl-shibh-i-amd', 'qatl-i-khata' and 'qatl-bis-sabab' as forms of qatl distinguished from qatl-e-amd mainly by the absence of:

    A Any causal connection with death B The specific intention to cause death, or knowledge of the requisite degree C Any distinction whatsoever, since they are treated identically D Any physical act causing death
56. Question 56 of 100

    Imam Malik ibn Anas was primarily based in the city of:

    A Madinah B Kufa C Damascus D Baghdad
57. Question 57 of 100

    Where a confession is otherwise relevant, it does not become irrelevant merely because it was made under a promise of secrecy, or in consequence of a deception practised on the accused, or when he was:

    A Represented by counsel B Under any of the above circumstances, subject to law C Drunk D Convicted earlier
58. Question 58 of 100

    Article 17(2), as substituted by the 18th Amendment, requires political parties to:

    A Hold annual conventions B Publish manifestos every year C Account for the source of their funds in accordance with law D Register with the Election Commission only
59. Question 59 of 100

    What criticism is most commonly directed at the Dosso judgment in Pakistani constitutional jurisprudence?

    A It strengthened parliamentary supremacy B It legitimized military takeovers and undermined constitutionalism C It expanded fundamental rights protections D It established judicial review for the first time
60. Question 60 of 100

    Section 421 punishes dishonest or fraudulent removal, concealment, or transfer of property, or any interest therein, in order to prevent that property from being made available for the payment of the offender's:

    A Public document B Debts C Confession D Taxes only
61. Question 61 of 100

    Section 315 defines 'qatl shibh-i-amd' as a homicide caused by doing an act with intent to cause harm to the body or mind of any person, without intending to cause the death of, or such bodily injury as is:

    A Purely negligent, without any intent to harm B Purely accidental C Trivial and insignificant D Sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death
62. Question 62 of 100

    Section 316 provides the punishment for qatl shibh-i-amd, which consists of diyat and may extend to:

    A Ta'zir of imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to twenty-five years B Life imprisonment as the sole sentence, without diyat C Death as qisas in every case D Fine only
63. Question 63 of 100

    Distinguish Section 96 from Section 100 CPC (though Section 100 falls outside this syllabus, the contrast clarifies scope): what does Section 96 specifically govern?

    A Appeals from interlocutory orders only B Appeals from original decrees (first appeals), as opposed to second appeals on questions of law C Review applications only D Revision applications only
64. Question 64 of 100

    Under Section 6, all definitions in the Code are to be understood subject to the exceptions contained in the chapter entitled:

    A Of Abetment B General Exceptions C Of Punishments D Definitions of Terms
65. Question 65 of 100

    The rule allowing statements by persons who cannot be called as witnesses is essentially an exception to the general prohibition on:

    A Character evidence B Expert opinion C Documentary evidence D Hearsay evidence
66. Question 66 of 100

    What does Order XLIII of the CPC deal with?

    A Appeals from orders B Parties to suits C Temporary injunctions specifically D Appeals from original decrees
67. Question 67 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 9, what must a plaintiff show to have a dismissal under Rule 8 set aside?

    A Payment of the entire original claim amount as security B Nothing beyond filing the application within any time frame C That the defendant consents to the restoration D Sufficient cause for his non-appearance when the suit was called on for hearing
68. Question 68 of 100

    The distinction between 'burden of proof' and 'onus of proof' is often explained as the former being fixed by the pleadings and remaining constant, while the latter:

    A Is fixed permanently on the accused B Shifts as evidence is led during the trial C Is fixed permanently on the plaintiff D Never exists in law
69. Question 69 of 100

    Which rule prohibits an advocate from soliciting professional employment by advertisement?

    A Rule 134 B Rule 135 C Rule 145 D Rule 141
70. Question 70 of 100

    A party seeks an order preserving disputed property from being sold off before a suit concerning its ownership is decided. Under which CPC Order would this application typically be made?

    A Order IX (Appearance of Parties) B Order VII (Plaint) C Order XXXIX (Temporary Injunctions) D Order I (Parties to Suits)
71. Question 71 of 100

    Ihering is often regarded as a founder of the:

    A Sociological school of jurisprudence B Historical school C Natural law school D Realist school
72. Question 72 of 100

    Article 17(1) protects every citizen's right to:

    A Form a registered political party only B Form NGOs without government oversight C Join a trade union exclusively D Form associations or unions, subject to reasonable restrictions
73. Question 73 of 100

    The protection for professional communications does not extend to any communication made in furtherance of any:

    A Illegal purpose, or to any fact observed showing that a crime or fraud has been committed since the commencement of employment B Civil suit C Legitimate defence D Appeal
74. Question 74 of 100

    Under Section 10, the words 'man' and 'woman' are used to denote human beings, while the words 'boy' and 'girl' are not defined by age but the words 'man' and 'woman' denote persons of any:

    A Profession B Religion C Age D Nationality
75. Question 75 of 100

    Which section of the CPC preserves the court's inherent powers to secure the ends of justice?

    A Section 104 B Section 115 C Section 151 D Section 47
76. Question 76 of 100

    Admissions are relevant and may be proved as against the person who makes them or his:

    A Advocate alone B Court alone C Witnesses only D Representative in interest
77. Question 77 of 100

    Under Order XXXIX, what is the primary purpose of a temporary injunction, as opposed to a final, permanent injunction?

    A To preserve the status quo pending resolution of the suit on its merits B To punish the defendant for prior conduct C To transfer the property in dispute to the plaintiff immediately D To permanently and finally resolve the parties' rights
78. Question 78 of 100

    Which Article of the UN Charter contains the principle of sovereign equality of states?

    A Article 1 B Article 3 C Article 2 D Article 4
79. Question 79 of 100

    Under Article 71, in a joint sitting convened to resolve disagreement over a Bill, no amendment may be proposed other than amendments necessitated by:

    A Public petitions filed during the delay B Provincial Assembly objections C The delay arising from the procedure already followed D Federal Cabinet review
80. Question 80 of 100

    Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counterpart being executed by one or some of the parties only, each counterpart is primary evidence as against the parties:

    A Only after the death of the executants B Who did not execute it C Executing it D Who are strangers to the transaction
81. Question 81 of 100

    Under Article 2, 'fact' means and includes anything, state of things, or relation of things capable of being:

    A Only admitted by a party B Perceived by the senses C Only written down D Only proved by an expert
82. Question 82 of 100

    Is a decree deemed preliminary or final if further proceedings must be taken before the suit is completely disposed of?

    A Executory B Preliminary C Final D Interlocutory
83. Question 83 of 100

    Every public officer having the custody of a public document, which any person has a right to inspect, must give that person a copy of it on demand along with a certificate that it is a true copy, generally called a:

    A Certified copy B Confession C Primary document D Dying declaration
84. Question 84 of 100

    Proof of documents by production of certified copies is intended to avoid the inconvenience of requiring the production of the:

    A Original public record in every case B Certified copy itself C FIR D Charge-sheet
85. Question 85 of 100

    An entry in a public or official record made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty is relevant as a statement of the:

    A Motive of the accused B Guilt of the accused conclusively C Fact stated therein D Character of the parties
86. Question 86 of 100

    A final judgment, order or decree of a competent court, in the exercise of probate, matrimonial, admiralty or insolvency jurisdiction, which confers or takes away any legal character, is relevant when the existence of such legal character is:

    A Already decided by a lower court B In issue C Admitted by both parties D Irrelevant to the proceeding
87. Question 87 of 100

    On what primary ground did the Supreme Court find the dissolution order to be invalid?

    A The Prime Minister had resigned voluntarily B The Assembly itself had requested its own dissolution C The President lacked the constitutional power to dissolve the Assembly under any circumstance D The grounds cited by the President did not meet the constitutional threshold required under Article 58(2)(b)
88. Question 88 of 100

    Under Order XLI, Rule 5, what may the appellate court order pending the disposal of an appeal?

    A Immediate execution of the decree regardless of the appeal B A stay of proceedings or execution, or grant an injunction to preserve the status quo C Automatic reversal of the lower court's decree D Transfer of the case to a different bench
89. Question 89 of 100

    Under Order XLIII, is an order rejecting an application to set aside a dismissal of a suit (e.g. under Order IX) generally treated as appealable?

    A No, only the original dismissal itself can ever be challenged, not the refusal to set it aside B Yes, such orders are among those specifically listed as appealable under Order XLIII, Rule 1 C No, such orders can never be challenged in any forum D Only the Supreme Court may entertain such a challenge, never a High Court
90. Question 90 of 100

    A 'sub-division' under the Cr.P.C. means a sub-division of a:

    A Province B District C Union Council D Tehsil Court
91. Question 91 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order IX addresses dismissal of a suit where summons was not served due to the plaintiff's failure to pay required fees or charges?

    A Rule 5 B Rule 3 C Rule 8 D Rule 2
92. Question 92 of 100

    Which rule prohibits an advocate from being an active partner or salaried official of a Government or private body while practising?

    A Rule 148 B Rule 172 C Rule 152 D Rule 175
93. Question 93 of 100

    Which rule addresses advocates' duty to protest unsuitable judicial appointments and their own aspiration for judicial office?

    A Rule 142 B Rule 174 C Rule 163 D Rule 165
94. Question 94 of 100

    Khan Asfandyar Wali and others vs. Federation of Pakistan is reported at:

    A PLD 1996 S.C. 324 B PLD 1993 S.C. 473 C PLD 2000 S.C. 869 D PLD 2001 S.C. 607
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Article 89(2)(b), an Ordinance not relating to Money Bill matters, if not laid before the relevant House or disapproved, stands repealed after how many days from promulgation (current general default, distinct from the Money-Bill-specific 120-day rule)?

    A Thirty days under all circumstances B Sixty days under all circumstances C Ninety days under all circumstances D One hundred and twenty days (post-26th Amendment alignment) or as otherwise specified by the amended text
96. Question 96 of 100

    Which section of the CPC provides the general residual rule on place of suing, based on the defendant's residence or where the cause of action arises?

    A Section 19 B Section 16 C Section 15 D Section 20
97. Question 97 of 100

    The overall object of Chapter X is best described as providing a:

    A Framework for hearing criminal appeals B Mechanism to try serious offences punishable with death C Framework for recording confessions D Summary and speedy remedy against public nuisances without the need for a full civil suit
98. Question 98 of 100

    Where the accused fails to comply with the conditions of a bail bond, the bond is liable to be:

    A Automatically cancelled with no financial consequence whatsoever B Converted automatically into a fresh FIR C Converted automatically into an appeal D Forfeited, with the surety or accused liable to pay the penalty specified
99. Question 99 of 100

    The rule requiring primary evidence except in specified circumstances is designed to reduce the risk of:

    A Excessive litigation costs alone B Undue delay in trial only C Excessive judicial notice D Fraud, alteration, or inaccuracy in secondary reproductions
100. Question 100 of 100

     The requirement that oral evidence must be direct is essentially a statutory expression of the rule against admitting:

     A Hearsay evidence B Expert opinion C Confessions D Documentary evidence

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