Law GAT Mock Test 14

1. Question 1 of 100

   Quranic verses revealed after the migration to Madinah, often dealing with detailed legal rules, are known as:

   A Qat'i verses only B Zanni verses C Madani verses D Makki verses
2. Question 2 of 100

   Searches conducted under Chapter VII are generally required to be carried out in the presence of:

   A Independent and respectable witnesses of the locality B Only the accused's relatives C No witnesses at all D Only police officers
3. Question 3 of 100

   Distinguishing the Federal Shariat Court from the Federal Constitutional Court: which statement is accurate?

   A The Federal Constitutional Court only handles tax matters B The Federal Shariat Court was created by the 27th Amendment C Both courts have identical jurisdiction D The Federal Shariat Court examines repugnancy of laws to Islamic injunctions, while the Federal Constitutional Court has exclusive jurisdiction over general constitutional interpretation and fundamental rights enforcement
4. Question 4 of 100

   Article 6(2) makes which conduct equally guilty of high treason as the principal act of abrogating the Constitution?

   A Merely criticizing the Constitution in writing B Aiding or abetting such an act C Failing to report knowledge of such an act D Voting against the government in Parliament
5. Question 5 of 100

   'Primary evidence' means the document itself produced for the:

   A Inspection of the Court B Custody of the police C Signature of a witness D Filing of an appeal
6. Question 6 of 100

   Where a document mentions a date, but extrinsic evidence shows the parties actually meant a different date, evidence to that effect is permitted under the exception relating to:

   A Public documents generally B Character evidence C Documents whose language is unmeaning in reference to existing facts D Presumptions as to electronic records
7. Question 7 of 100

   Section 203 empowers a Magistrate to dismiss a complaint if, after considering the statements and the result of any inquiry, he finds:

   A That the accused has already served a sentence for the offence B No sufficient ground for proceeding, briefly recording his reasons C That the complainant has withdrawn the FIR D That the accused has been granted bail
8. Question 8 of 100

   Under Order XLI, what happens generally where an appeal is found to be incompetent, but the same grievance could properly be raised by way of revision?

   A Courts have, in appropriate cases, treated an incompetent appeal as a revision and vice versa, to serve the interests of justice B The appellant is automatically barred from any further recourse C The matter must always be dismissed outright with no alternative remedy D The matter must be restarted as an entirely new suit
9. Question 9 of 100

   Where two or more persons have engaged in a common intention to commit an offence, anything said, done or written by any one of them in reference to that common intention is a relevant fact against:

   A No one, as it is hearsay B Only the principal offender C Only the person who said or did it D Each of the persons so engaged
10. Question 10 of 100

    Under Order XLIII, are orders relating to a receiver, made under Order XL, generally treated the same way as orders relating to injunctions for appeal purposes?

    A No, only injunction orders are appealable, never receiver orders B No, receiver-related orders are never appealable C Only if the receiver is a government official D Yes, both categories are specifically listed as appealable orders under Order XLIII, Rule 1
11. Question 11 of 100

    A plaintiff's plaint fails to disclose any cause of action against the defendant at all. What is the defendant's most direct remedy at the outset of proceedings?

    A Wait until trial and argue the point only in final submissions B Seek rejection of the plaint under Order VII, Rule 11 C Apply for a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX D File a revision under Section 115 immediately
12. Question 12 of 100

    Under Order VI, if a defendant denies a contract alleged by the plaintiff, what must the denial specify?

    A Nothing beyond a general denial B The defendant's entire defence strategy C Which part of the contract is denied D The names of all witnesses
13. Question 13 of 100

    The Federal Court's decision in the Tamizuddin Khan appeal was authored mainly by which Chief Justice?

    A Justice Constantine B Justice Cornelius C Justice Munir D Justice Akram
14. Question 14 of 100

    Statements made in the ordinary course of business, such as an entry in books kept in the ordinary course of business, may be relevant when made by a person who is dead or cannot be found, as they relate to the:

    A Occurrence of the acts to which they refer B Character of a party C Civil status of a witness D Guilt of the accused conclusively
15. Question 15 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order XLI allows dismissal of an appeal, without notice to the lower court, where the appellant fails to appear at the hearing?

    A Rule 23 B Rule 10 C Rule 11 D Rule 27
16. Question 16 of 100

    Section 458 provides an enhanced punishment for lurking house-trespass or house-breaking by night, after preparation made for causing hurt, assault, or wrongful restraint, or fear of any of these, to any:

    A Court B Confession C Public document D Person
17. Question 17 of 100

    Under Rule 139, how should a client's suggestion of engaging additional advocates be regarded?

    A As an implicit criticism of the current advocate B Not as evidence of want of confidence, but a matter left to the client's determination C As requiring Bar Council approval D As grounds for the current advocate to withdraw
18. Question 18 of 100

    Is a document (such as a decree) essential to the plaintiff's case generally required to be filed along with the plaint?

    A Only if the defendant requests them B Yes, as far as practicable C No, documents may be withheld until trial D Only in suits for immovable property
19. Question 19 of 100

    Article 6 of the Constitution defines and criminalizes:

    A Blasphemy B High treason C Contempt of court D Sedition
20. Question 20 of 100

    Article 26 prohibits discrimination in access to places of public entertainment/resort on grounds including all EXCEPT:

    A Race B Religion C Caste D Political affiliation
21. Question 21 of 100

    Under Order IX, what is required for a court to set aside a decree passed ex parte against a defendant?

    A Payment of a fixed penalty to the plaintiff B Consent of the plaintiff C The defendant must satisfy the court that they were prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing D Merely filing an application within any time period, without more
22. Question 22 of 100

    Hohfeld's analysis of jural relations distinguishes right, duty, privilege/liberty, power, immunity and:

    A No-right B Custom C Sanction D Precedent
23. Question 23 of 100

    In Dosso's case, what was the Supreme Court's view on the justiciability of the legality of the 1958 revolution itself?

    A It found the revolution illegal B It referred the matter to Parliament C It declared the question non-existent D It held the question to be a political one beyond judicial scrutiny once the revolution succeeded
24. Question 24 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what is a 'Foreign Court'?

    A A Court situated beyond the limits of Pakistan, having no authority in Pakistan and not established or continued by the Federal Government B Any court applying a different school of legal thought C Any court situated in a different province of Pakistan D Any international tribunal, regardless of location
25. Question 25 of 100

    The presumption of legitimacy is regarded as one of the strongest presumptions known to law and can only be displaced by:

    A Strong and conclusive evidence of non-access B Judicial notice alone C A bare denial by the husband D Mere suspicion
26. Question 26 of 100

    The exclusion of oral evidence to vary a written contract does not prevent a party from proving a total absence of consideration, or that the contract itself is void or voidable for reasons such as fraud, mistake, or illegality, because such evidence does not seek to:

    A Prove a subsequent oral rescission only B Explain an ambiguous clause only C Establish a custom contrary to the contract D Vary the terms of a valid contract but attacks its very existence or validity
27. Question 27 of 100

    Evidence of specific instances of a person's conduct is generally more restricted than evidence of general reputation when proving:

    A Signature B Character C Handwriting D Age
28. Question 28 of 100

    Under Section 23, the word 'wrongful gain' means gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally:

    A Entitled B Related C Married D Employed
29. Question 29 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order IX addresses dismissal where the plaintiff fails, after unserved summons, to apply for fresh summons within the prescribed period?

    A Rule 8 B Rule 5 C Rule 2 D Rule 3
30. Question 30 of 100

    Under Rule 159, what attitude is it the duty of an advocate to maintain toward the Court?

    A A deferential attitude only toward judges he personally respects B An adversarial attitude when disagreeing with a ruling C A neutral attitude with no particular obligation D A respectful attitude, for the maintenance of the Court's supreme importance
31. Question 31 of 100

    A tenant who has been let into possession cannot dispute the landlord's title to the property so long as he has not surrendered his:

    A Right to appeal B Ownership C Possession, i.e. so long as the tenancy continues D Right to sue
32. Question 32 of 100

    Facts bearing on the question whether an act was accidental or intentional, or done with a particular knowledge or intention, may include evidence that the accused has, on other occasions, done acts of a similar kind, which is generally treated as:

    A Always irrelevant B Relevant to that question C Admissible only against co-accused D Conclusive proof of guilt
33. Question 33 of 100

    Chapter VII, taken as a whole, is primarily concerned with facilitating the collection of evidence and protecting:

    A The right to unconditional bail in every case B Personal liberty against wrongful confinement C The right to compound all offences D The right to a jury trial
34. Question 34 of 100

    What is the official predecessor of the International Court of Justice?

    A League of Nations Council B Permanent Court of Arbitration C International Criminal Court D Permanent Court of International Justice
35. Question 35 of 100

    If the Magistrate directs an inquiry under Section 202 to be made by the police, the resulting report is generally:

    A Automatically binding and conclusive on the Magistrate B Treated as an automatic acquittal C Treated as a substantive conviction D Considered by the Magistrate but does not bind his final decision on whether to proceed
36. Question 36 of 100

    What does Section 6 CPC (pecuniary jurisdiction) primarily govern?

    A The territorial limits of a court's jurisdiction B The appellate jurisdiction of the High Court C That a court cannot exercise jurisdiction over suits whose value exceeds the pecuniary limits of its ordinary jurisdiction D The subject-matter limits of a court's jurisdiction
37. Question 37 of 100

    Can two judges of the ICJ be nationals of the same state?

    A Only ad hoc judges B Yes, always C No D Yes, with consent
38. Question 38 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, is an adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order included within the definition of 'decree'?

    A No, it is expressly excluded B Yes, but only for money decrees C Yes, but only in the High Court's original jurisdiction D Yes, always
39. Question 39 of 100

    Which UN Charter chapter deals with non-self-governing territories?

    A Chapter XIII B Chapter X C Chapter XII D Chapter XI
40. Question 40 of 100

    Confessions are treated in the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order as a species of:

    A Admissions B Circumstantial evidence exclusively C Documentary evidence only D Expert opinion
41. Question 41 of 100

    Under Section 6, all definitions in the Code are to be understood subject to the exceptions contained in the chapter entitled:

    A Of Abetment B General Exceptions C Of Punishments D Definitions of Terms
42. Question 42 of 100

    Mischief by injury to works of irrigation, or by wrongfully diverting water, is separately dealt with under specific provisions, reflecting the importance attached by the Code to:

    A Agricultural and irrigation interests B Purely political interests only C Purely commercial interests only D Purely religious interests only
43. Question 43 of 100

    Which rule states that clients, not advocates, are the litigants, and that ill-feeling between clients should not affect advocates' conduct toward each other?

    A Rule 143 B Rule 159 C Rule 140 D Rule 137
44. Question 44 of 100

    The study of law 'as it ought to be' is called:

    A Expository jurisprudence B Comparative jurisprudence C Historical jurisprudence D Censorial (normative) jurisprudence
45. Question 45 of 100

    Which specific rule of Order IX allows a plaintiff to apply to set aside a dismissal made under Rule 8, by showing sufficient cause?

    A Rule 9 B Rule 3 C Rule 5 D Rule 7
46. Question 46 of 100

    In Asma Jilani's case, the Supreme Court held that General Yahya Khan's assumption and exercise of power was:

    A Valid because Parliament approved it B That of a usurper, without legal or constitutional sanction C Fully constitutional under the doctrine of necessity D Valid only for defence matters
47. Question 47 of 100

    Under Article 2, 'evidence' includes all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, called:

    A Documentary evidence B Circumstantial evidence C Secondary evidence D Oral evidence
48. Question 48 of 100

    Section 420 provides an enhanced punishment for cheating, where the offence involves inducing the delivery of property, or the making, alteration, or destruction of a valuable security, or anything which is signed or sealed and capable of being converted into a:

    A Valuable security B Confession C Public document only D Judgment only
49. Question 49 of 100

    The UN Secretariat is headed by whom?

    A The Secretary-General B The Chief Justice of ICJ C The President of Security Council D The President of General Assembly
50. Question 50 of 100

    The existence of any judgment, order or decree which by law terminates any proceeding is a relevant fact when the question is whether such court is legally:

    A Bound to acquit B Constituted C Bound to convict D Bound to award costs only
51. Question 51 of 100

    The Al-Jehad Trust case is most commonly known by which informal name?

    A The Judges Case B The Coup Case C The Dissolution Case D The Detention Case
52. Question 52 of 100

    When there are multiple dying declarations by the same deceased which are inconsistent with one another, the Court is generally required to:

    A Carefully scrutinize them for reliability, consistency, and corroboration B Accept only the last one automatically C Accept only the first one without scrutiny D Reject all of them automatically
53. Question 53 of 100

    Under Section 11's Explanation V, how is a relief claimed in a plaint treated if it is not expressly granted by the decree, for purposes of res judicata?

    A It is deemed to have been refused B It is deemed to remain undecided and open for a future suit C It has no bearing on any future proceeding D It is deemed to have been granted by implication
54. Question 54 of 100

    Who is the current Secretary-General of the United Nations (as of the LAW-GAT syllabus era)?

    A Kofi Annan B Ban Ki-moon C Boutros Boutros-Ghali D António Guterres
55. Question 55 of 100

    Section 337 defines and provides punishment for various kinds of hurt including shajjah and jurh, categorizing jurh, i.e. hurt other than to the head or face, into 'jaifah' and:

    A 'Diyat' B 'Ghayr-jaifah' C 'Qatl-i-khata' D 'Isqat-e-hamal'
56. Question 56 of 100

    Section 97 empowers a Magistrate to issue a search-warrant in respect of a place suspected to be used for:

    A Religious worship only B The deposit or sale of stolen property, or the manufacture/deposit of forged documents or counterfeit items C Ordinary residential purposes only D Judicial proceedings only
57. Question 57 of 100

    The historical evolution of Islamic law is often divided by scholars into stages including the Prophetic era, the era of the Companions, and the era of:

    A Only the future eschatological era B Only the modern colonial era C Only the pre-Islamic Jahiliyyah period D The Mujtahid Imams and codification of the schools
58. Question 58 of 100

    Re-examination shall be directed to the explanation of matters referred to in cross-examination, and if new matter is introduced with the permission of the Court, the adverse party may further:

    A Cross-examine upon that matter B Object to the entire testimony C Demand a retrial D Re-examine the witness himself
59. Question 59 of 100

    Article 31(1) directs that steps shall be taken to enable Muslims of Pakistan, individually and collectively, to order their lives according to which framework?

    A International human rights law B Secular constitutional principles C Customary tribal law D The fundamental principles and basic concepts of Islam
60. Question 60 of 100

    What is a written statement, in general terms?

    A A list of witnesses the defendant intends to call B A summary prepared by the court of the plaintiff's case C An application seeking dismissal of the suit D The defendant's formal reply to the plaintiff's claim, addressing the allegations made in the plaint
61. Question 61 of 100

    Robbery is essentially theft or extortion 'plus' an aggravating element, generally described as the use of, or attempt to use, force, fear, or restraint in order to commit the:

    A Public document only B Theft or extortion, or in carrying away or attempting to carry away property obtained by the theft C Judgment D Confession
62. Question 62 of 100

    The Hart-Fuller debate primarily concerns:

    A The connection (or separation) between law and morality B The theory of ownership C The definition of possession D The concept of sovereignty in international law
63. Question 63 of 100

    In the broader sequence of constitutional cases, the Al-Jehad Trust (Judges) case primarily deals with which branch of governance compared to the earlier cases like Dosso and Nusrat Bhutto?

    A Taxation powers B Provincial boundaries C Judicial appointments and the independence of the judiciary, rather than the legality of executive/military takeovers D Foreign policy
64. Question 64 of 100

    What does Section 47 CPC provide regarding questions relating to the execution, discharge, or satisfaction of a decree?

    A They shall be determined by the court executing the decree and not by a separate suit B They must always be raised in a fresh suit C They can only be raised on appeal D They are automatically waived if not raised at trial
65. Question 65 of 100

    What term does Section 2 CPC use for the formal expression of an adjudication that conclusively determines the parties' rights in a suit?

    A Decree B Judgment C Decision D Order
66. Question 66 of 100

    Savigny believed that legislation should play what kind of role compared to custom?

    A The only role, replacing all custom B A secondary role, mainly to systematize existing custom C A role limited to criminal law D No role at all
67. Question 67 of 100

    A specific rule derived by jurists for a particular situation is called (in fiqh terminology):

    A Illah (effective cause) B Hukm (legal ruling) C Nass (explicit text) D Asl (root/original case)
68. Question 68 of 100

    The Quran is considered a source of law that is:

    A Qat'i al-Thubut (definitively established in its transmission) B Only partially preserved C Doubtful in its transmission D Subject to textual corruption
69. Question 69 of 100

    Under Rule 172, until a statute has been finally construed by competent adjudication, is an advocate entitled to advise as to what he conscientiously believes to be its just meaning?

    A No, he must always presume the statute valid as drafted B No, only a judge may offer such an opinion C No, unless the Bar Council pre-approves the advice D Yes
70. Question 70 of 100

    Karl Llewellyn's realist approach is sometimes summarized as focusing on 'law in:

    A Action' rather than 'law in books' B Theory' rather than 'law in practice' C History' rather than 'law in society' D Nature' rather than 'law in society'
71. Question 71 of 100

    Under Article 2, a fact is said to be 'relevant' to another when it is connected with the other in any of the ways referred to in the provisions relating to:

    A Estoppel B The relevancy of facts C Presumptions only D Burden of proof only
72. Question 72 of 100

    Section 82 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of:

    A Seven years B Ten years C Twelve years D Fourteen years
73. Question 73 of 100

    Which section of the CPC empowers a court to issue a commission to examine a person or make a local investigation?

    A Section 151 B Section 47 C Section 115 D Section 75
74. Question 74 of 100

    Section 110 deals with security for good behaviour required from:

    A Public Prosecutors B Sessions Judges C First-time bailable offenders only D Habitual offenders
75. Question 75 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what term describes the formal expression of any decision of a civil court which is NOT a decree?

    A Order B Decree C Judgment D Ruling
76. Question 76 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 4, what may a plaintiff generally do after a suit is dismissed for non-appearance of both parties under Rule 3?

    A Apply for a temporary injunction instead B Appeal directly to the Supreme Court only C Nothing; the dismissal is entirely final with no recourse D Apply for an order to set the dismissal aside, or bring a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation
77. Question 77 of 100

    If no attesting witness can be found, or if the document purports to have been executed in Pakistan or is registered and was executed before 1927 (subject to the applicable law), the document may be proved as if it were:

    A A confession B A public document C Unattested D A privileged communication
78. Question 78 of 100

    Section 310 provides for the compounding of qatl-e-amd not liable to qisas, or where qisas has been waived or compounded, through payment of:

    A Arsh only B Civil damages only, as if for a tort C Diyat D Public fine to the State only
79. Question 79 of 100

    Where a Magistrate, after examination of the complainant under Section 200 and any inquiry under Section 202, finds sufficient ground to proceed, he generally moves to:

    A Dismiss the complaint under Section 203 B Automatically acquit the accused C Automatically refer the matter to a civil court D Issue process under Section 204
80. Question 80 of 100

    Section 396 punishes dacoity with murder, where any one of five or more persons who jointly commit dacoity, commits murder in so committing dacoity, providing that every such person shall be punished with:

    A Simple imprisonment for one year B Death, or imprisonment for life C No punishment, since only the actual killer is liable D A civil fine only
81. Question 81 of 100

    Which rule generally requires an advocate to have been consulted before advising commencement of prosecution or defence?

    A Rule 151 B Rule 152 C Rule 170 D Rule 153
82. Question 82 of 100

    Confessions, being a species of admission, are substantive evidence and may form the sole basis of conviction if the Court is satisfied it is:

    A True and voluntary B Recorded by police only C Made anonymously D Made under threat
83. Question 83 of 100

    Under Rule 155, how should controversies with clients concerning compensation generally be handled?

    A Referred automatically to the Bar Council B Avoided, so far as compatible with the advocate's self-respect and right to reasonable recompense C Always pursued through immediate litigation D Ignored entirely regardless of amount owed
84. Question 84 of 100

    An advocate is unable to attend a scheduled hearing due to a conflicting engagement, but neither appears nor arranges a substitute. Which rule does this violate?

    A Rule 159 alone B No rule; missing a hearing carries no professional consequence C Rule 170 alone D Rule 166, which requires appearance when a matter is called, or satisfactory alternative arrangements if attendance is not possible
85. Question 85 of 100

    Which rule generally restrains an advocate from volunteering legal opinions in cases in which he is not engaged?

    A Rule 173 B Rule 151 C Rule 158 D Rule 167
86. Question 86 of 100

    The examination-in-chief of a witness is generally intended to elicit facts supporting the case of the party calling him, while cross-examination is generally intended to:

    A Introduce leading questions freely without restriction B Establish a confession C Only impeach the complainant's character D Test the truth, accuracy and credibility of the witness's testimony
87. Question 87 of 100

    Under Rule 144, where more than one advocate is engaged on the same side, who generally has the right to lead the case?

    A The advocate the court designates B The senior member, with junior members assisting, unless the senior wants otherwise C Whichever advocate was retained first, regardless of seniority D The junior member, for training purposes
88. Question 88 of 100

    The primary purpose of supplying copies of statements and documents to the accused under Chapter XVII is to:

    A Allow him to appoint the Magistrate of his choice B Enable him to understand the case against him and prepare his defence C Allow him to draft the FIR himself D Delay the trial indefinitely with no purpose
89. Question 89 of 100

    The essential object of bail, as recognized under Chapter XXXIX, is to secure the:

    A Permanent detention of the accused regardless of trial outcome B Automatic compounding of the offence C Due attendance of the accused at trial, rather than to punish him before conviction D Immediate punishment of the accused before any trial
90. Question 90 of 100

    Under Order XXXIX, what happens to a temporary injunction once the underlying suit is finally decided?

    A It automatically becomes permanent regardless of the final decree B It generally merges into or is superseded by the final relief granted (or refused) in the decree C It has no relationship at all to the final outcome of the suit D It must be separately re-litigated as a fresh suit
91. Question 91 of 100

    Section 4 of the Cr.P.C. is the section dealing primarily with:

    A Definitions of key terms used in the Code B Bail provisions C Appeals D Powers of arrest
92. Question 92 of 100

    Article 37(d) directs the State to ensure inexpensive and speedy justice through what specific reform?

    A Abolishing the appellate process B Simplifying and minimizing legal procedure C Restricting all appeals to written submissions only D Establishing private arbitration as the default mechanism
93. Question 93 of 100

    Which rule addresses newspaper publications by advocates about pending or anticipated litigation?

    A Rule 161 B Rule 173 C Rule 138 D Rule 164
94. Question 94 of 100

    Ijma of the companions of the Prophet (PBUH) is generally regarded by most jurists as:

    A Irrelevant to Islamic law B The strongest and most authoritative form of Ijma C Equivalent to a fabricated hadith D Weaker than the Ijma of later jurists
95. Question 95 of 100

    When the question is whether an act was done by mistake or accident, evidence of similar occurrences showing that the act formed part of a series of similar occurrences may be:

    A Only relevant to civil suits B Relevant to negate accident or mistake C Always excluded regardless of relevance D Conclusive of intention alone
96. Question 96 of 100

    Under Article 1, Pakistan is declared to be a:

    A Confederation B Parliamentary Monarchy C Federal Republic D Unitary Republic
97. Question 97 of 100

    What is the general significance of Part VII's progression from Article 175 through 212 for a LAW-GAT candidate's understanding of judicial architecture?

    A It only concerns the Supreme Court's internal administration B It deals exclusively with criminal procedure C It is limited to judges' pension entitlements D It maps the full hierarchy: general court structure, the new Federal Constitutional Court, the Supreme Court, High Courts, the Federal Shariat Court, and general/tribunal provisions
98. Question 98 of 100

    Under Article 206, a Supreme Court or High Court judge may resign office by:

    A Verbal notice to the Chief Justice B A resolution passed by Parliament C Writing under his hand addressed to the President D Public announcement only
99. Question 99 of 100

    A fact is relevant if it shows or constitutes a motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact, and preparation, in this sense, generally refers to the:

    A Actual commission of the act itself B Devising or arranging means necessary for the commission of an act C Judgment following conviction D Confession made after the act
100. Question 100 of 100

     As per Article 1(2), which of the following is NOT listed among the territories comprising Pakistan?

     A The Islamabad Capital Territory B Azad Jammu and Kashmir C The Provinces of Balochistan, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Punjab and Sindh D States and territories acceded to Pakistan

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