Law GAT Mock Test 13

1. Question 1 of 100

   Under Rule 156, to what is an advocate's professional duty said to be strictly limited?

   A Making submissions at the Bar consistently with the interest of the client B Securing the most lenient possible outcome regardless of merits C Following the client's personal instructions on legal strategy without question D Achieving victory for the client by any available means
2. Question 2 of 100

   Under Order IX, Rule 5, what happens if, after summons is returned unserved, the plaintiff fails for the prescribed period to apply for fresh summons?

   A The court must proceed ex parte automatically B The court may dismiss the suit against the defendant who was not served C The suit is automatically transferred to another court D The defendant is deemed to have admitted the claim
3. Question 3 of 100

   Statements made in an FIR by the complainant may be used as an admission against the complainant primarily to test his:

   A Credibility and consistency B Financial status C Character D Educational qualification
4. Question 4 of 100

   Under which provision does an appeal lie against an order granting or refusing a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX?

   A Order IX, Rule 6 B Order VII, Rule 11 C Order XLIII, Rule 1 D Order VI, Rule 17
5. Question 5 of 100

   Where a statute creates a presumption against the accused on proof of certain facts, the burden shifts to the accused to rebut it, but the standard required of him is generally lower than proof:

   A Beyond reasonable doubt, being satisfied on preponderance of probability B By an admission alone C By a mere balance of convenience D By judicial notice
6. Question 6 of 100

   Section 306 lays down cases in which qisas is not applicable for qatl-e-amd, such as where an offender causes the death of his own child or grandchild, or where any Wali of the victim is a:

   A Public servant B Stranger unrelated to the offender C Foreign national D Direct descendant of the offender
7. Question 7 of 100

   Under Article 193(2)(a), a person is qualified for High Court judgeship if he has been an advocate of a High Court for not less than how many years?

   A Ten years B Five years C Fifteen years D Twelve years
8. Question 8 of 100

   Under Order IX, Rule 7, what may happen if a defendant who was absent at a previous hearing appears at a later hearing and shows good cause for the earlier absence?

   A The suit must be restarted from the beginning as a fresh suit B The defendant is permanently barred from participating further C The plaintiff's claim is automatically dismissed as a penalty D The court may, in its discretion, allow the defendant to be heard as if he had appeared on the first hearing date
9. Question 9 of 100

   Where the parties have deliberately put their contract into writing, oral evidence to add to, vary, or contradict its terms is generally:

   A Admissible only if the witness is an expert B Excluded, subject to the statutory exceptions C Admissible only after thirty years D Freely admissible
10. Question 10 of 100

    Which UN Charter chapter deals with regional arrangements?

    A Chapter IX B Chapter VI C Chapter VIII D Chapter VII
11. Question 11 of 100

    A 'Fatwa' in Islamic law is best described as:

    A A verse of the Quran B A binding court judgment C A non-binding legal opinion issued by a qualified jurist (Mufti) D A hadith report
12. Question 12 of 100

    A confession made by an accused cannot be used against a co-accused as substantive evidence unless it falls within the special rule for confessions of persons:

    A Who are witnesses only B Jointly tried for the same offence C Who are relatives D Never, under any circumstances
13. Question 13 of 100

    In a suit between husband and wife, one spouse is generally a competent witness against the other, subject to rules of:

    A Estoppel only B Character evidence only C Absolute incompetency in every case D Privileged communications during marriage
14. Question 14 of 100

    Under Section 96(3) CPC, can an appeal lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties?

    A Yes, always B Only with leave of the High Court C Only in family suits D No
15. Question 15 of 100

    Under Order XXXIX, is a court generally required to hear the opposite party before granting a temporary injunction, except in cases of genuine urgency?

    A No, notice is required only if the defendant has already filed a written statement B No, injunctions may always be granted without any notice whatsoever C Yes, as a general rule, notice to the opposite party is required before an injunction is granted, save in urgent or exceptional circumstances justifying an ex parte order D No, notice is required only in suits exceeding a certain value
16. Question 16 of 100

    The Tamizuddin Khan case arose during which constitutional period of Pakistan's history?

    A The pre-1956 Constitution period, under the Government of India Act 1935 framework B The post-1973 amendment period C The Ayub Khan presidential system D The 1973 Constitution period
17. Question 17 of 100

    Section 391 defines 'dacoity' as robbery committed, or attempted to be committed, by:

    A Five or more persons conjointly B Two persons only C A single person acting alone D A public servant only
18. Question 18 of 100

    What does Section 10 CPC (stay of suit) prevent?

    A A plaintiff from filing a second suit on any matter B A court from proceeding with the trial of a suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties C A defendant from filing a counter-claim D A court from ever hearing more than one suit at a time
19. Question 19 of 100

    The Social Contract theorists associated with natural law/rights include Hobbes, Locke and:

    A Savigny B Rousseau C Kelsen D Austin
20. Question 20 of 100

    The Hanafi school is generally considered to have made relatively extensive use of:

    A Qiyas and Istihsan (juristic preference) B Only Ijma, rejecting Qiyas altogether C Only pre-Islamic custom D Only literal textual interpretation with no reasoning
21. Question 21 of 100

    Under Section 22, the words 'movable property' are intended to include corporeal property of every description except land and things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything which is:

    A Incorporeal B Movable C Attached to the earth D Intangible
22. Question 22 of 100

    Under Article 179, as amended, a Supreme Court judge holds office until age sixty-five, while the Chief Justice's term (post-26th Amendment) is capped at:

    A Three years, or until age 65 or removal, whichever is earlier B Seven years C Until retirement age regardless of term length D Five years fixed
23. Question 23 of 100

    Which UN General Assembly Resolution defines the crime of 'aggression' (1974)?

    A Resolution 1514 (XV) B Resolution 2625 (XXV) C Resolution 3314 (XXIX) D Resolution 377 (V)
24. Question 24 of 100

    Section 359 provides that kidnapping is of two kinds, namely, kidnapping from Pakistan and kidnapping from:

    A Lawful guardianship B A confession C A civil suit D A public document
25. Question 25 of 100

    In criminal cases, the fact that the accused person has a good character is:

    A Relevant only if he is a first-time offender B Relevant only in bailable offences C Relevant D Irrelevant
26. Question 26 of 100

    No fact of which the Court will take judicial notice needs to be proved, but if the Court is called upon to take judicial notice of any fact, it may refer to appropriate:

    A Confessions B Books or documents of reference for its aid C Newspapers only D Hearsay statements
27. Question 27 of 100

    Which rule states it is improper for an advocate to assert his personal belief in his client's cause during argument?

    A Rule 163 B Rule 170 C Rule 156 D Rule 153
28. Question 28 of 100

    Where a witness's memory is refreshed by referring to a writing, that writing must, subject to the rules, be produced and shown to the adverse party if he requires it, and the adverse party may:

    A Cross-examine the witness on it B Object to the trial altogether C Demand a fresh FIR D Refuse to see it
29. Question 29 of 100

    Under Article 69, courts are barred from inquiring into the validity of Parliamentary proceedings on the ground of:

    A Lack of quorum B Improper voting method C Absence of the Speaker D Any irregularity of procedure
30. Question 30 of 100

    An advocate regularly invites a sitting judge to lavish private dinners unconnected to any personal relationship. Under Rule 162, is this appropriate?

    A No, such unusual hospitality not called for by personal relations should be avoided as it invites misconstruction of motive B Yes, provided no case is currently pending before that judge C Yes, if the judge insists on paying D Yes, as it fosters goodwill between Bench and Bar
31. Question 31 of 100

    When the question is whether a particular act was done, the existence of any course of business according to which it naturally would have been done is:

    A Only relevant with expert opinion B Irrelevant C Conclusive proof it was done D Relevant
32. Question 32 of 100

    In cross-examination, questions as to credit that are scandalous or offensive in form, even if the facts inquired into occurred a long time ago, may be forbidden by the Court if it is of opinion that the imputation which they convey relates to matters so remote that the:

    A Truth of the imputation would not affect the credibility of the witness B Public Prosecutor must intervene C Witness must be discharged D Truth of the imputation would seriously affect the Court's opinion as to the credibility of the witness on the relevant point
33. Question 33 of 100

    Ihering's theory of possession, in contrast to Savigny's, focused more on:

    A Pure mental intention alone B Custom alone C Legislative definition alone D The objective element (corpus), de-emphasizing strict animus domini
34. Question 34 of 100

    Section 59 deals with the:

    A Recording of dying declarations B Grant of bail in bailable offences C Discharge of a person apprehended, otherwise than on bail or under a Magistrate's order, once grounds for detention cease D Powers of appellate courts
35. Question 35 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who does the definition of 'Pleader' include?

    A An advocate B Only a person appearing without any legal qualification C Only a person holding a specific 'pleader' license distinct from an advocate D Only a government-appointed legal officer
36. Question 36 of 100

    Which school of jurisprudence emphasizes the relationship between law and society?

    A Natural law school B Historical school C Sociological school D Analytical school
37. Question 37 of 100

    Under Article 175A(2), prior to the 27th Amendment, who chaired the Judicial Commission of Pakistan?

    A The Federal Law Minister B The Chief Justice of Pakistan C The senior-most Supreme Court judge D The Attorney-General
38. Question 38 of 100

    Under Rule 140, is it proper to allude to the personal history or peculiarities of opposing counsel during the trial of a cause?

    A Yes, with the court's permission B Yes, in cross-examination only C No, this is described as indecent D Yes, if relevant to credibility
39. Question 39 of 100

    Cheating differs from criminal breach of trust chiefly in that cheating involves deception inducing the victim to part with property, whereas criminal breach of trust involves misappropriation of property already:

    A Entrusted to the accused B Stolen by a third party C Registered as a public document D Owned by the accused himself
40. Question 40 of 100

    Section 55 requires that when a police officer deputes a subordinate to arrest a person without a warrant, the subordinate must be given:

    A No order at all, acting purely on verbal instruction B A written order specifying the person to be arrested and the offence C A warrant issued by a Magistrate D Permission from the accused's family
41. Question 41 of 100

    Which rule addresses an advocate declining association as a colleague where a previously retained advocate's dues are unpaid?

    A Rule 142 B Rule 139 C Rule 140 D Rule 144
42. Question 42 of 100

    Under Order VII, is a plaint's statement of jurisdiction facts a mere formality, or does the plaintiff need to show facts actually establishing jurisdiction?

    A A bare, unsupported assertion of jurisdiction is always sufficient B The plaintiff must show facts actually establishing that the chosen court has jurisdiction C Jurisdiction need not be addressed in the plaint at all D Jurisdiction is established solely by the defendant's failure to object
43. Question 43 of 100

    Two advocates are on the same side of a case, and a dispute arises over who should lead. Absent any special direction, whose view under Rule 144 generally prevails?

    A The junior advocate's, to encourage development B The senior advocate's, since he has the right to lead unless he decides otherwise C The client's alone, without regard to the advocates' seniority D It must be resolved by the Bar Council
44. Question 44 of 100

    Local usage or trade custom may be relevant to annex incidents to a written contract that are not repugnant to or inconsistent with its:

    A Express terms B Stamp duty C Attestation D Registration
45. Question 45 of 100

    Under Article 198(1), the principal seat of a High Court is at such place as the President may, by Order, appoint, while permanent Benches may be established at other places by:

    A The Provincial Assembly alone B The relevant High Court's Bar Association C The President, after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned and the Governor D The Federal Constitutional Court
46. Question 46 of 100

    A presumption that the Court 'shall presume' a document, once the statutory conditions are met, differs from one it 'may presume' in that the former leaves:

    A No discretion, only rebuttal by contrary evidence B Only academic significance C Wider discretion to the Court D No legal effect at all
47. Question 47 of 100

    What is the difference between a temporary injunction and a perpetual injunction?

    A A perpetual injunction can only be granted against the government B There is no legal difference between the two C A temporary injunction can never later become perpetual D A temporary injunction is an interim remedy pending the suit, while a perpetual injunction is granted at the final hearing on the merits
48. Question 48 of 100

    The person qualified to issue a Fatwa is called a:

    A Muhaddith B Mufti C Qadi D Mutakallim
49. Question 49 of 100

    A key purpose of Chapter VIII is to enable the State to take preventive action against persons likely to:

    A Appear as a witness in another case B File a civil suit C Exercise their right to vote D Endanger public peace or engage in habitual criminal conduct
50. Question 50 of 100

    Under Order XLIII, what must a memorandum of appeal from an appellate order generally be accompanied by?

    A A no-objection certificate from the opposing party B A bank guarantee for the full decretal amount C Nothing beyond the appellant's signature D A certified copy of the judgment and order of the court of first instance, and of the appellate court
51. Question 51 of 100

    Section 396 punishes dacoity with murder, where any one of five or more persons who jointly commit dacoity, commits murder in so committing dacoity, providing that every such person shall be punished with:

    A Simple imprisonment for one year B Death, or imprisonment for life C No punishment, since only the actual killer is liable D A civil fine only
52. Question 52 of 100

    Under Order VI, what does the term 'pleading' mean?

    A Plaint or written statement B Only the written statement C Any document filed in a suit, including evidence D Only the plaint
53. Question 53 of 100

    Article 25(1)'s equality guarantee is sometimes tested against Article 27's anti-discrimination clause for public service. What is the key distinguishing focus of Article 27 compared to the general Article 25?

    A Article 25 applies only to minors B Article 27 applies only to women C They are identical in scope D Article 27 specifically targets discrimination in appointment to the service of Pakistan, while Article 25 is the general equality clause
54. Question 54 of 100

    Particular jurisprudence is concerned with the study of:

    A Any one particular legal system B Natural law C International law D Comparative religion
55. Question 55 of 100

    Under Order VI, what must a pleading generally avoid containing?

    A Any reference to prior case law B Any scandalous, frivolous, vexatious, or otherwise unnecessary or embarrassing matter C Any reference to the relief sought D Any reference to statutory provisions
56. Question 56 of 100

    Section 207 relates to the supply, to the accused, of copies of the:

    A Order dismissing the complaint B Final judgment only, after the trial concludes C Statements and documents on which the prosecution proposes to rely D Bail bond only
57. Question 57 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC deals with parties to suits?

    A Order VII B Order I C Order IX D Order VI
58. Question 58 of 100

    The Hanafi school today is predominantly followed in regions including:

    A North Africa exclusively B Only Saudi Arabia C Only Iran D South Asia, Turkey and Central Asia
59. Question 59 of 100

    Which specific type of provision in the NAB Ordinance, involving reversal of the normal burden of proof, drew particular scrutiny in this case?

    A Provisions related to traffic violations B Provisions presuming guilt and requiring the accused to prove innocence in corruption cases C Provisions governing marriage registration D Provisions related to property inheritance
60. Question 60 of 100

    Where cheating is accompanied by dishonest inducement to deliver property, and the offender had, from the outset, a fraudulent or dishonest intention which existed at the time of making the:

    A Confession B Promise or representation C Public document D Judgment
61. Question 61 of 100

    Under Rule 161, may an advocate cite as authority a decision he knows to have been overruled, without disclosing that fact?

    A Yes, provided the citation is otherwise accurate B No C Yes, if the overruling is itself controversial D Yes, in oral argument only, not in writing
62. Question 62 of 100

    Under Section 4, a 'complaint' to a Magistrate specifically excludes a report made by the:

    A Police B Aggrieved party personally C Public in general D Accused's counsel
63. Question 63 of 100

    Under Article 177(2)(a), a High Court judge is eligible for Supreme Court appointment after serving for a period of, or periods aggregating, not less than how many years as a High Court judge?

    A Ten years B Seven years C Five years D Three years
64. Question 64 of 100

    Under Section 4, a 'complaint' means an allegation made to a Magistrate with a view to his taking action, but does not include:

    A A police report B A statement made under oath C A written statement D An oral statement
65. Question 65 of 100

    Article 63(1)(b) disqualifies a person from Parliament membership if he is:

    A A dual national of a Commonwealth country B An undischarged insolvent C A retired civil servant D Over sixty-five years of age
66. Question 66 of 100

    What chapter of the Pakistan Legal Practitioners and Bar Councils Rules, 1976 immediately follows Chapter XII, dealing with Bar Associations?

    A Chapter XIII B Chapter XI C Chapter XII-A D Chapter XII-B
67. Question 67 of 100

    Distinguish Section 104 from Section 96 CPC: what is the key difference in what each governs?

    A Section 96 governs appeals from decrees, while Section 104 governs appeals from orders that are not decrees B They are identical in scope C Section 104 applies only to execution proceedings D Section 96 applies only to criminal matters
68. Question 68 of 100

    Which Article of the UN Charter recognizes the right of self-defence?

    A Article 33 B Article 51 C Article 99 D Article 2(4)
69. Question 69 of 100

    The 'officer in charge of a police station' generally refers to the officer:

    A Junior-most officer only B Present at the station who is the senior-most officer on duty, in the absence of the officer appointed as such C Public Prosecutor attached to that area D Magistrate supervising that police station
70. Question 70 of 100

    Which later doctrine, though not the central basis of this judgment, is often associated with the broader context of executive dissolution of representative bodies starting with this era?

    A Doctrine of Harmonious Construction B Doctrine of Pith and Substance C Doctrine of Colourable Legislation D Doctrine of Necessity
71. Question 71 of 100

    Section 102 provides that the right of private defence of the body commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence, and continues as long as such:

    A Complaint remains unfiled B FIR remains unregistered C Apprehension of danger to the body continues D Charge remains unframed
72. Question 72 of 100

    Under Article 2, a fact is said to be 'not proved' when it is neither proved nor:

    A Admitted B In issue C Disproved D Relevant
73. Question 73 of 100

    Under Section 4, a 'non-bailable offence' means:

    A Any offence other than a bailable offence B Only offences under special laws C Only offences triable summarily D Only offences punishable with death
74. Question 74 of 100

    The 'Uniting for Peace' Resolution (1950) allows which organ to act when the Security Council is deadlocked?

    A The General Assembly B The Secretariat C ECOSOC D The ICJ
75. Question 75 of 100

    Under Article 85, the National Assembly may grant a 'vote on account' covering estimated expenditure for a part of a financial year not exceeding:

    A Three months B Four months C Two months D Six months
76. Question 76 of 100

    Natural law theorists generally argue that an unjust law that violates fundamental morality:

    A Must always be obeyed without question B May not be regarded as true law ('lex injusta non est lex') C Is always still valid regardless of morality D Cannot exist historically
77. Question 77 of 100

    What does Order IX of the CPC deal with?

    A Appearance of parties and the consequence of non-appearance B Temporary injunctions C Execution of decrees D Pleadings generally
78. Question 78 of 100

    Section 457 punishes lurking house-trespass or house-breaking by night, in order to the committing of an offence punishable with:

    A No punishment B A civil remedy only C Imprisonment, subject to the specified categories D A departmental inquiry only
79. Question 79 of 100

    Evidence may be given to show in what manner the language of a document is related to existing facts, when a document refers to facts, and it is necessary to identify the persons or things meant, so as to apply the:

    A Rule of estoppel B Presumption of genuineness C Rule against hearsay D Words used to the existing facts
80. Question 80 of 100

    Under Article 27(1), reservation of posts for persons from underrepresented classes/areas in service of Pakistan is permitted for a period not exceeding how many years from the commencing day (as currently amended)?

    A Forty years B Fifty years C Ten years D Twenty years
81. Question 81 of 100

    Judges of the ICJ are elected for a term of how many years?

    A Ten years B Five years C Nine years D Six years
82. Question 82 of 100

    An appellate court believes a lower court decided a suit solely on a technical preliminary point without examining the merits at all. What power under Order XLI allows the appellate court to send the matter back for a proper decision on the merits?

    A The power to grant a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX B The power to add parties under Order I C The power of remand under Order XLI, Rule 23 D The power to reject the plaint under Order VII
83. Question 83 of 100

    In cases in which the previous good or bad conduct of a person is relevant, the fact of his previous conviction is also generally relevant as evidence of:

    A Bad character B Handwriting C Good character D Estoppel
84. Question 84 of 100

    Any witness may, while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to any writing made by himself at the time of the transaction concerning which he is questioned, or so soon afterwards that the Court considers it likely the transaction was:

    A Fresh in his memory B Forgotten by him C Not relevant at all D Fabricated afterwards
85. Question 85 of 100

    Under Chapter VIII, before requiring a person to furnish security, the Magistrate must generally make an order in writing stating:

    A The name of the appellate court B The substance of the information, the amount of the bond and the period for which it is required C The verdict of guilt without inquiry D Only the final sentence to be imposed
86. Question 86 of 100

    What was the practical effect of the Federal Court's ruling on the Constituent Assembly?

    A Pakistan adopted a new constitution immediately B The Assembly was merged with the Senate C The dissolution was effectively allowed to stand in substance, weakening the Assembly's position D The Assembly was fully restored with all its powers intact
87. Question 87 of 100

    A witness testifying that 'X told me that he saw the accused commit the offence' is, as to the commission of the offence, generally:

    A Direct and admissible evidence of the offence B Hearsay and not direct evidence of the offence C Conclusive proof of the offence D An admission by the accused
88. Question 88 of 100

    Which rule bars an advocate from accepting employment on a matter he previously handled in a judicial capacity?

    A Rule 148 B Rule 174 C Rule 146 D Rule 172
89. Question 89 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC deals with pleadings generally?

    A Order VIII B Order VII C Order I D Order VI
90. Question 90 of 100

    Public prosecutor A deliberately withholds a witness statement that would tend to establish the accused's innocence, in order to secure a conviction. Which rule does this violate?

    A Rule 160 alone B Rule 163, which states the prosecutor's primary duty is to see that justice is done, not merely to convict, and condemns suppression of exculpatory evidence C Rule 145 D No rule; prosecutorial discretion is unrestricted
91. Question 91 of 100

    Judgments delivered by courts of justice, other than those specifically declared relevant, in matters not falling within the special provisions of relevancy of judgments, are generally treated as:

    A Conclusive proof in all subsequent proceedings B Admissions binding on strangers to the suit C Public documents open to inspection only D Irrelevant to prove that the facts stated therein actually occurred
92. Question 92 of 100

    The presumption regarding maps or plans made by government authority extends to their accuracy, but this presumption can be rebutted by showing:

    A That the map is thirty years old B That it concerns a private document C Specific inaccuracy in the map or plan D That it was published in a Gazette
93. Question 93 of 100

    A sentence to undergo simple imprisonment implies imprisonment without:

    A Any fixed duration B Any confinement at all C Any judicial oversight D Hard labour
94. Question 94 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 3, what is the consequence where neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing?

    A The suit automatically proceeds ex parte in the plaintiff's favour B The suit is automatically adjourned indefinitely C The court must appoint an amicus curiae to represent both sides D The court may make an order that the suit be dismissed
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who does 'legal representative' include?

    A Only a person named in a will B Only a court-appointed executor C A person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, including one who intermeddles with the estate D Only a blood relative of the deceased
96. Question 96 of 100

    Facts otherwise irrelevant become relevant if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact, or if by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly:

    A Probable or improbable B Improbable in every case C Irrelevant to the charge D Presumed conclusively
97. Question 97 of 100

    On what technical ground did the Federal Court ultimately base part of its reasoning regarding the validity of laws passed by the Constituent Assembly?

    A The doctrine of necessity alone B The requirement of Governor-General's assent to constitutional legislation C Absence of presidential approval D Lack of quorum
98. Question 98 of 100

    The case diary maintained under Section 172 is generally:

    A Not admissible as substantive evidence, though the court may use it to aid the trial B A public document open for inspection by anyone C The sole and conclusive evidence of guilt D Identical in content to the FIR
99. Question 99 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC governs temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders?

    A Order XLI B Order IX C Order XXXIX D Order XLIII
100. Question 100 of 100

     In Qiyas, the 'Asl' refers to the:

     A Chain of narrators B New case requiring a ruling C Effective cause of the ruling D Original case already governed by a known textual ruling

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