Law GAT Mock Test 4

1. Question 1 of 100

   Section 435 provides an enhanced punishment for mischief by fire or explosive substance, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause, damage to the amount of:

   A Any nominal sum, however small B No specified amount C One hundred rupees or upwards, or, in the case of agricultural produce, ten rupees or upwards D A single rupee only
2. Question 2 of 100

   Under Rule 150, what must an advocate not do with money or property belonging to a client that comes into his possession?

   A Invest it on the client's behalf without instruction B Hold it in a separate account C Commingle it with his own property D Report its receipt to the client
3. Question 3 of 100

   Although the Judge may put any question he pleases, the judgment must be based upon facts declared by the Order to be relevant, and duly:

   A Admitted only by the accused B Proved C Presumed only D Disregarded
4. Question 4 of 100

   Article 55(2) provides that the National Assembly's sitting may be adjourned or suspended if less than what fraction of total membership is present (quorum issue)?

   A One-third B Two-thirds C One-fourth D One-half
5. Question 5 of 100

   Which rule concerns the order of precedence among advocates on the roll, subject to the Attorney-General and Advocate-General?

   A Rule 142 B Rule 134 C Rule 144 D Rule 171
6. Question 6 of 100

   What was the Supreme Court's stated justification for treating General Zia's intervention as necessary in 1977?

   A A natural disaster B Foreign invasion C The breakdown of law and order and the political deadlock between the government and opposition (PNA movement) D A financial emergency alone
7. Question 7 of 100

   The 19th Amendment, 2010, made which key modification to Article 175A shortly after the 18th Amendment introduced it?

   A Transfer of appointment power to provincial governments B Adjustments to the Judicial Commission's composition and procedure following Supreme Court observations C Complete repeal of the Judicial Commission D Removal of the Special Parliamentary Committee's role entirely
8. Question 8 of 100

   Under Article 54(3), on a requisition by what fraction of total National Assembly membership must the Speaker summon a session?

   A Two-thirds B One-third C One-half D One-fourth
9. Question 9 of 100

   Section 92 provides that nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, even without that person's consent, if the circumstances are such that it is impossible for that person to signify:

   A Refusal B Consent C An admission D A confession
10. Question 10 of 100

    Under Section 96(3) CPC, can an appeal lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties?

    A Yes, always B Only with leave of the High Court C Only in family suits D No
11. Question 11 of 100

    Which rule governs division of fees for legal services among advocates?

    A Rule 150 B Rule 141 C Rule 154 D Rule 155
12. Question 12 of 100

    The examination of a witness by the party who calls him is called his:

    A Cross-examination B Impeachment C Examination-in-chief D Re-examination
13. Question 13 of 100

    The comparison of a disputed signature, writing, or seal with one admitted or proved to the satisfaction of the Court to have been made by the same person may be made by a witness or by the Court itself, this being the rule on:

    A Presumption of genuineness of certified copies B Exclusion of oral by documentary evidence C Judicial notice D Comparison of signature, writing or seal
14. Question 14 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, is every Judge included within the definition of 'public officer'?

    A No, judges are expressly excluded from this definition B Only judges of superior courts, not subordinate courts C Yes D Only judges appointed after 1947
15. Question 15 of 100

    Which section of the CPC governs the general right of appeal from an original decree?

    A Section 115 B Section 104 C Section 96 D Section 47
16. Question 16 of 100

    What does the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11 CPC prevent?

    A A court from trying a suit or issue that has already been directly and substantially decided between the same parties by a competent court B A party from settling out of court C A party from ever appealing a decision D A court from hearing any related suit whatsoever
17. Question 17 of 100

    When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in that field are relevant, commonly called opinions of:

    A Experts B Character witnesses C Investigating officers only D Interested parties
18. Question 18 of 100

    When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon:

    A That person B No one, since it is presumed C The prosecution alone in every case D The court itself
19. Question 19 of 100

    The existence of a course of dealing between parties, tending to explain or introduce a fact in issue, is treated similarly to facts showing:

    A Character alone B Judgment in rem C Estoppel by record D Course of business
20. Question 20 of 100

    Under Article 37(b), the State shall remove illiteracy and provide free and compulsory education at which level within the minimum possible period?

    A Vocational training only B Primary education only C Higher education D Secondary education
21. Question 21 of 100

    Section 338 defines 'isqat-e-hamal', broadly relating to causing a woman with child to miscarry, if such miscarriage is not caused in good faith for the purpose of saving the:

    A Property of the unborn child B Reputation of the family only C Financial interest of the husband only D Life of the woman
22. Question 22 of 100

    What was the central constitutional question in the Tamizuddin Khan case?

    A Whether the Governor-General had the power to dissolve the Constituent Assembly B Whether the President could dissolve the National Assembly C Whether judges could be removed from office D Whether martial law was valid
23. Question 23 of 100

    Article 11(1) prohibits which practice absolutely?

    A Slavery B Child labour in agriculture C Unpaid internships D Forced military conscription
24. Question 24 of 100

    All persons are generally competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational answers, by reason of:

    A Their gender B Their religion C Their occupation D Tender years, extreme old age, disease of body or mind, or any other similar cause
25. Question 25 of 100

    Which section of the CPC governs suits for compensation for wrongs to the person or movable property?

    A Section 18 B Section 16 C Section 17 D Section 19
26. Question 26 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 8, if the defendant appears but the plaintiff does not, and the defendant admits only part of the plaintiff's claim, what does the court do?

    A Pass a decree against the defendant on the admitted part, and dismiss the suit as to the remainder B Adjourn the matter indefinitely until the plaintiff appears C Pass a decree for the entire original claim regardless of the partial admission D Dismiss the entire suit regardless of the partial admission
27. Question 27 of 100

    The exclusion of oral evidence in favour of documentary evidence, where terms have been reduced to writing, promotes certainty in transactions by preventing:

    A The admissibility of expert evidence B Judicial notice of ambiguous terms C The presumption of genuineness of old documents D Parties from later asserting terms different from those recorded in writing
28. Question 28 of 100

    Section 458 provides an enhanced punishment for lurking house-trespass or house-breaking by night, after preparation made for causing hurt, assault, or wrongful restraint, or fear of any of these, to any:

    A Court B Confession C Public document D Person
29. Question 29 of 100

    Grounds on which an expert bases an opinion, if not already deposed to by him, may be proved to test or support that opinion, and are relevant on the same principle as the:

    A Judgment itself B Dying declaration C Expert opinion D Confession of the accused
30. Question 30 of 100

    The order in which witnesses are produced and examined is regulated by the law and practice relating to civil and criminal procedure, and in the absence of any such law, by the:

    A Discretion of the investigating officer B Wishes of the accused alone C Discretion of the complainant D Discretion of the Court
31. Question 31 of 100

    Under Section 54, a person found in possession of housebreaking implements without lawful excuse, or a proclaimed offender, or a deserter from the armed forces may generally be:

    A Arrested without a warrant B Detained only after a full trial C Arrested only with the sanction of the High Court D Released without any inquiry
32. Question 32 of 100

    How is the UN Charter amended according to Article 108?

    A Security Council alone B Unanimous vote of all member states C Two-thirds of General Assembly members, including all permanent Security Council members D Simple majority of General Assembly
33. Question 33 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what does 'mesne profits' refer to?

    A The court fee paid on a suit B The costs awarded to the successful party C The value of the subject-matter of a suit D Profits that a person in wrongful possession of property actually received or could have received with ordinary diligence, together with interest
34. Question 34 of 100

    A bail bond executed under Chapter XXXIX generally remains in force:

    A Throughout the proceedings until the case is concluded, unless cancelled earlier B Only until the charge-sheet is filed, automatically lapsing thereafter with no further effect C For exactly twenty-four hours only D Only until the FIR is registered
35. Question 35 of 100

    Under Section 33, the word 'act' denotes as well a series of acts as a single act, and the word 'omission' denotes as well a series of omissions as a:

    A Confession B Single act C Single omission D Presumption
36. Question 36 of 100

    Under Order VI, must pleadings be signed and verified by the party or their pleader?

    A Only in suits involving the government B Only the plaint requires a signature, not the written statement C No, signing is optional D Yes
37. Question 37 of 100

    Under Order VI, if a defendant denies a contract alleged by the plaintiff, what must the denial specify?

    A Nothing beyond a general denial B The defendant's entire defence strategy C Which part of the contract is denied D The names of all witnesses
38. Question 38 of 100

    Section 94 provides that, except for murder and offences against the State punishable with death, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is compelled to do it by:

    A Any minor inconvenience B A promise of reward C Mere persuasion of a friend D Threats which, at the time of doing it, reasonably cause the apprehension that instant death to that person will otherwise be the consequence
39. Question 39 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC governs temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders?

    A Order XLI B Order IX C Order XXXIX D Order XLIII
40. Question 40 of 100

    Section 204 provides that if, in the opinion of the Magistrate taking cognizance, there is sufficient ground for proceeding, he shall issue:

    A A summons or a warrant, as the case may require, to secure the attendance of the accused B An order granting anticipatory bail C An automatic order of conviction D An automatic order of acquittal
41. Question 41 of 100

    Statements made by persons who cannot be called as witnesses because they are dead, or cannot be found, or have become incapable of giving evidence, or whose attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expense, may become relevant as an:

    A Irrelevant fact in all cases B Admission by the opposite party C Exception to the rule against hearsay D Absolute bar to evidence
42. Question 42 of 100

    The disagreement among jurists on whether Ijma can occur without the participation of ALL Mujtahids of an era, or a majority, is a debate about:

    A The definition of Shari'a itself B The abrogation of Quranic verses C The scope/conditions of valid Ijma D The authenticity of hadith narrators
43. Question 43 of 100

    Section 365 punishes kidnapping or abducting a person with intent to cause that person to be secretly and wrongfully:

    A Adopted B Employed C Married D Confined
44. Question 44 of 100

    Distinguish Section 104 from Section 96 CPC: what is the key difference in what each governs?

    A Section 96 governs appeals from decrees, while Section 104 governs appeals from orders that are not decrees B They are identical in scope C Section 104 applies only to execution proceedings D Section 96 applies only to criminal matters
45. Question 45 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who does the definition of 'Pleader' include?

    A An advocate B Only a person appearing without any legal qualification C Only a person holding a specific 'pleader' license distinct from an advocate D Only a government-appointed legal officer
46. Question 46 of 100

    Natural law theory heavily influenced the drafting of:

    A Only criminal procedure codes B Only commercial contracts C Modern human rights instruments and constitutional bills of rights D Only tax legislation
47. Question 47 of 100

    Under Rule 136, may an advocate share compensation arising from professional employment with an unlicensed person?

    A No B Yes, up to a reasonable proportion C Yes, if the unlicensed person is a family member D Yes, with the client's consent
48. Question 48 of 100

    Under Order VI, should a pleading state the evidence by which the facts are to be proved?

    A No, pleadings should state material facts only, not the evidence by which they are to be proved B Yes, but only documentary evidence C Yes, all evidence must be pleaded in full D Yes, but only for the plaintiff's pleading
49. Question 49 of 100

    How many judges sit on the International Court of Justice?

    A 12 B 9 C 15 D 21
50. Question 50 of 100

    Which section of the CPC empowers a court to issue a commission to examine a person or make a local investigation?

    A Section 151 B Section 47 C Section 115 D Section 75
51. Question 51 of 100

    Which rule concerns how an advocate's fee is to be determined?

    A Rule 154 B Rule 150 C Rule 155 D Rule 141
52. Question 52 of 100

    The principle 'Shar'u man qablana' refers to reliance, in certain circumstances, on:

    A Modern secular statutes B The laws revealed to earlier prophets/nations, where not abrogated by Islamic law C Customary tribal law of Arabia only D Roman civil law
53. Question 53 of 100

    Whether a fact requires proof, or is a matter for judicial notice, or has been admitted, is generally decided by the Court by reference to the:

    A Wishes of the complainant alone B Nature of the fact and the provisions on facts need not be proved C Preamble of the Order only D Personal opinion of the investigating officer
54. Question 54 of 100

    Article 14(2) specifically prohibits torture for what purpose?

    A Prison discipline B Military training C Extracting evidence D Crowd control
55. Question 55 of 100

    Which of the following is NOT one of the recognized grounds for arrest without warrant under Section 54?

    A The person is reasonably suspected of having stolen property in his possession B The person is a proclaimed offender C The person obstructs a police officer in the execution of his duty D The person has merely lodged a non-cognizable complaint against a neighbour
56. Question 56 of 100

    A party to a suit cannot be compelled to disclose any confidential communication which has taken place between him and his legal adviser, unless he:

    A Offers himself as a witness, in which case he may be compelled to disclose communications necessary to explain evidence which he has given, but not otherwise B Is a foreign national C Is represented by more than one advocate D Is a public officer
57. Question 57 of 100

    Which doctrine did the Supreme Court invoke to validate General Zia's martial law in this case?

    A Doctrine of Severability B Doctrine of Basic Structure C Doctrine of Eclipse D Doctrine of State Necessity
58. Question 58 of 100

    Facts showing the motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact are treated as:

    A Irrelevant in every case B Conclusive proof of guilt C Admissible only in civil cases D Relevant
59. Question 59 of 100

    Imam al-Shafi'i studied under both Imam Malik and scholars of the Hanafi tradition, and is known for developing a:

    A Complete rejection of the Quran B Balanced methodology combining reliance on hadith with structured principles of Qiyas C Purely customary approach with no textual basis D Complete rejection of hadith
60. Question 60 of 100

    An appeal against conviction ordinarily allows the appellate court to review both questions of:

    A Law only, never fact B Neither fact nor law, only procedure C Fact only, never law D Fact and law
61. Question 61 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, who does 'legal representative' include?

    A Only a person named in a will B Only a court-appointed executor C A person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, including one who intermeddles with the estate D Only a blood relative of the deceased
62. Question 62 of 100

    Under Order XXXIX, Rule 1, besides danger of waste or alienation of the disputed property, what other ground may justify a temporary injunction?

    A The existence of a prior unrelated dispute between the parties B The defendant's poor credit history alone C The party against whom the injunction is sought is threatening to remove or dispose of property to defraud creditors, or is threatening to violate the plaintiff's legal rights D The plaintiff's mere preference for a quicker resolution
63. Question 63 of 100

    'Maslaha Mursalah' is particularly associated with which school of law?

    A Hanbali school B Maliki school C Ja'fari school D Zahiri school
64. Question 64 of 100

    What is the declaration under Article 36(2) of the ICJ Statute commonly called?

    A Compromis B Optional Clause C Reservation Clause D Compromissory Clause
65. Question 65 of 100

    The Court may presume that any book, published Gazette, or newspaper containing a notification, order or proceeding of the Government was so published by the authority of the:

    A Complainant B Government C Investigating officer D Private publisher only
66. Question 66 of 100

    Duguit's theory de-emphasizes individual subjective rights in favor of:

    A Objective social duties/functions B Absolute sovereign command C Religious obligations D Pure natural rights
67. Question 67 of 100

    The maximum period for which a person may generally be required to give security for good behaviour under Chapter VIII is commonly cited as up to:

    A One month B Six months C Three years D Ten years
68. Question 68 of 100

    Chapter XVII, in the overall scheme of the Cr.P.C., sits after the stage of taking cognizance and:

    A Marks the conclusion of the appeal process B Marks the final disposal of a bail application C Marks the registration of the FIR D Marks the formal commencement of proceedings against the accused before the court
69. Question 69 of 100

    Which rule requires an advocate to disclose his identity before appearing before a public officer or body representing affected interests?

    A Rule 147 B Rule 149 C Rule 138 D Rule 173
70. Question 70 of 100

    A presumption that a document is genuine because it is thirty years old and produced from proper custody does not extend to a presumption as to the:

    A Truth of the contents or recitals in the document B Fact that it was executed C Fact that it was attested, where attestation is shown D Handwriting of the person purporting to have executed it
71. Question 71 of 100

    Article 175A's structure was substantially introduced by which constitutional amendment?

    A The 13th Amendment, 1997 B The 17th Amendment, 2003 C The 8th Amendment, 1985 D The 18th Amendment, 2010
72. Question 72 of 100

    Section 426 provides the general punishment for mischief, generally consisting of imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:

    A Life imprisonment in every case B No punishment C Death D Three months, or with fine, or with both
73. Question 73 of 100

    The inquiry as to the truth of the information forming the basis of proceedings under Chapter VIII is generally conducted in a manner similar to a:

    A Summons-case trial, as nearly as may be practicable B Departmental inquiry only C Civil suit for damages D Constitutional petition
74. Question 74 of 100

    Under Article 36, due representation of minorities specifically extends to which two levels of service?

    A Only the armed forces B Only local government C Only judiciary D Federal and Provincial services
75. Question 75 of 100

    Under Rule 175-B, what is the consequence of non-observance or defiance of the decisions or instructions of the Pakistan Bar Council by any Bar Council, Bar Association, or member of the Bar?

    A Automatic suspension of the entire Bar Association B A minor administrative infraction only C No consequence, as such instructions are advisory only D It may be considered gross professional misconduct
76. Question 76 of 100

    Section 377 punishes unnatural offences, defined as carnal intercourse against the order of:

    A Public documents B Civil procedure C Contract law D Nature, with man, woman or animal
77. Question 77 of 100

    Who was the Chief Justice of Pakistan presiding when the Asma Jilani judgment was delivered?

    A Hamoodur Rahman B Muhammad Munir C Anwarul Haq D Nasim Hassan Shah
78. Question 78 of 100

    The Shafi'i school today is predominantly followed in regions including:

    A Only South Asia B Only Central Asia C Only Saudi Arabia D Egypt, East Africa and Southeast Asia
79. Question 79 of 100

    Under Rule 165, by what should an advocate's own aspiration for judicial office be governed?

    A An impartial estimate of his ability to add honour to the office, not a desire for personal distinction B By the potential salary and benefits of judicial office C By recommendations from political figures D Purely by seniority at the Bar
80. Question 80 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 8, what happens if the defendant appears but the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called for hearing, and the defendant does not admit the plaintiff's claim?

    A The court shall dismiss the suit, unless the defendant admits part of the claim, in which case a decree may be passed on the admitted part B The suit is automatically transferred to another court C The court must decide the suit ex parte against the defendant D The defendant is required to prove the plaintiff's case for him
81. Question 81 of 100

    Section 83 provides a qualified immunity for a child above seven and under twelve years of age who has not attained sufficient:

    A Maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion B Physical strength C Education D Wealth
82. Question 82 of 100

    Under Section 115 CPC (revision), on what grounds may the High Court interfere with a subordinate court's decision in a case where no appeal lies?

    A Only where the amount in dispute exceeds a fixed threshold B Whenever the High Court simply disagrees with the outcome C Only where both parties consent to revision D Where the subordinate court exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise jurisdiction vested in it, or acted illegally or with material irregularity in exercising its jurisdiction
83. Question 83 of 100

    The examination and cross-examination must relate to relevant facts, but the cross-examination need not be confined to the facts to which the witness testified on his:

    A Examination-in-chief B Affidavit only C Written statement only D Re-examination
84. Question 84 of 100

    Which rule affirms an advocate's right to decline professional employment and decide what business to accept?

    A Rule 148 B Rule 170 C Rule 175 D Rule 171
85. Question 85 of 100

    Under Rule 174-A, besides 'Retired Justice' and 'Ex Judge', what other former designations are specifically listed as impermissible for use by a practising advocate?

    A 'Doctor' and 'Professor' B 'Retired General', 'Ex Attorney-General', and 'Ex Advocate-General' C 'Senior Partner' and 'Managing Partner' D 'Barrister' and 'Solicitor'
86. Question 86 of 100

    What official title did General Pervez Musharraf adopt following the 1999 takeover, as referenced in the case title?

    A Prime Minister of Pakistan B President of Pakistan C Governor-General of Pakistan D Chief Executive of Pakistan
87. Question 87 of 100

    Ihering's approach is sometimes called 'jurisprudence of:

    A Concepts B Interests C Commands D Norms
88. Question 88 of 100

    A treaty clause providing in advance for ICJ jurisdiction over future disputes is called?

    A Compromis B Compromissory Clause C Reservation D Optional Clause
89. Question 89 of 100

    Where the credit of a witness is sought to be impeached by proof of a former statement inconsistent with his present testimony, such prior statement, if reduced to writing, must be proved as a matter of:

    A Judicial notice B Privileged communication C Documentary evidence, in the manner otherwise required by law D Estoppel
90. Question 90 of 100

    Under Article 175A(2), after the 27th Amendment, who chairs the Judicial Commission when both the Federal Constitutional Court and Supreme Court Chief Justices are members?

    A The senior-most of the two Chief Justices (FCC and Supreme Court) B The Attorney-General for Pakistan C The President of Pakistan D The Federal Minister for Law and Justice
91. Question 91 of 100

    Under Section 11's Explanation IV (constructive res judicata), how is a matter treated if it might and ought to have been raised as a ground of defence or attack in a former suit but was not?

    A It is automatically decided in the plaintiff's favour B It is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue in that suit C It has no bearing on subsequent litigation D It may be freely raised in a fresh suit
92. Question 92 of 100

    Opinions of persons other than experts, as to the identity of handwriting, may be received where such persons are otherwise acquainted with the handwriting of the person alleged to have written the document, as distinguished from:

    A Judicial notice B Presumptions as to public documents C Documentary evidence generally D The specialized scientific opinion of a handwriting expert
93. Question 93 of 100

    Section 497 governs the grant of bail in cases involving:

    A Appeals only B Civil suits only C Bailable offences exclusively D Non-bailable offences
94. Question 94 of 100

    The 'Uniting for Peace' Resolution is formally numbered as?

    A Resolution 1514 (XV) B Resolution 2625 (XXV) C Resolution 377 (V) D Resolution 3314 (XXIX)
95. Question 95 of 100

    Which of the following is regarded as a subordinate/secondary source of law by many jurists?

    A Custom B Juristic writings/professional opinion C Precedent D Legislation
96. Question 96 of 100

    Under Article 203F, an appeal against a Federal Shariat Court decision under Article 203D lies to:

    A The Federal Constitutional Court B No appeal lies at all C The Shariat Appellate Bench of the Supreme Court D A Provincial High Court
97. Question 97 of 100

    What does Order IX of the CPC deal with?

    A Appearance of parties and the consequence of non-appearance B Temporary injunctions C Execution of decrees D Pleadings generally
98. Question 98 of 100

    Facts, though not otherwise relevant, which support or are inconsistent with the opinion of experts, when such opinions are relevant, are also generally treated as:

    A Privileged B Conclusive proof C Irrelevant D Relevant
99. Question 99 of 100

    Chapter XVI of the Cr.P.C. deals with:

    A Security for keeping the peace B Appeals C Complaints to Magistrates D Public nuisance
100. Question 100 of 100

     A corporation sole consists of:

     A A single person and their successors in a particular office B The judiciary as a whole C Multiple persons only D A partnership only

You can practise as a guest, but sign in to save your score and track your progress.