Law GAT Mock Test 7

1. Question 1 of 100

   Article 6's protection against validation of high treason acts by courts (clause 2A) was extended by the 27th Amendment to specifically name which new court alongside the Supreme Court and High Courts?

   A The Federal Shariat Court B The Federal Constitutional Court C The Election Tribunal D The Anti-Terrorism Court
2. Question 2 of 100

   Section 106 addresses the right of private defence against an assault which reasonably causes apprehension of death, in circumstances exposing an innocent person to risk, providing that a person may, in that situation, risk harm to the:

   A Innocent person as an unavoidable consequence of exercising the right B Investigating officer only C Complainant only D Aggressor only, never to an innocent person
3. Question 3 of 100

   Section 422 punishes dishonestly or fraudulently preventing any debt or demand due to oneself, or to any other person, from being made available according to law for payment of one's own debts or the debts of:

   A A stranger unconnected with the debt B A public servant only C Such other person D The Government exclusively
4. Question 4 of 100

   Under Order VIII, Rule 5, what may a court do where a defendant has not filed any written statement at all?

   A Refer the matter to arbitration B Pronounce judgment on the basis of the facts contained in the plaint, except against a person under disability C Order the plaintiff to file a fresh plaint D Automatically dismiss the suit
5. Question 5 of 100

   'Ijma Sarih' (explicit consensus) refers to a consensus where jurists:

   A Openly and explicitly state their agreement on a ruling B Merely remain silent without objection C Disagree openly D Never discuss the matter at all
6. Question 6 of 100

   The general preference for direct evidence over hearsay is aimed primarily at ensuring the:

   A Reduction of court fees B Reliability of the evidence and opportunity for cross-examination C Convenience of the police D Speed of trial only
7. Question 7 of 100

   Under Section 15 CPC, in which court should every suit be instituted?

   A The court of the lowest grade competent to try it B The High Court, in the first instance C Any court the plaintiff prefers D The court nearest to the plaintiff's residence
8. Question 8 of 100

   Under Rule 140, whose ill-feeling should not be allowed to influence advocates' conduct and demeanour toward each other or the opposing party?

   A The clients' B The advocates' own C The Bar Council's D The court's
9. Question 9 of 100

   A 'cognizable offence' under the Cr.P.C. is one in which a police officer may, in accordance with the Schedule:

   A Never arrest B Only investigate with a magistrate's prior order C Only register an FIR after trial D Arrest without a warrant
10. Question 10 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, what does the term 'Code' include?

    A Only notifications issued by the Provincial Government B Only the numbered sections, not the Orders C Only judicial precedents interpreting the Code D Rules
11. Question 11 of 100

    Distinguish Section 115 (revision) from Section 96 (appeal): when does revision under Section 115 typically become available?

    A Revision is available even where a full right of appeal exists and has not been exercised B Revision applies only to criminal matters C Where no appeal lies from a subordinate court's decision, but that court exercised jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise vested jurisdiction, or acted illegally or with material irregularity D Revision and appeal are available in identical circumstances with no distinction
12. Question 12 of 100

    As per the current text of Article 51(1), how many total seats are there in the National Assembly?

    A Three hundred and seventy B Three hundred and forty-two C Three hundred and twenty-six D Three hundred and thirty-six
13. Question 13 of 100

    What common thread links Order VII, Rule 11 and Order IX generally, despite governing different stages of a suit?

    A Both apply only to suits against the Government B Both apply exclusively to appellate proceedings C Both concern only the law of limitation D Both provide grounds on which a suit may be terminated at a preliminary stage without a full trial on the merits — rejection of the plaint, and dismissal for non-appearance, respectively
14. Question 14 of 100

    The rule about documents thirty years old from proper custody serves the interest of justice by recognizing the practical:

    A Impossibility of calling witnesses to very old transactions B Irrelevance of old documents C Need to reject all old evidence D Presumption of forgery in old documents
15. Question 15 of 100

    When more persons than one are tried jointly for the same offence and a confession made by one of them affecting himself and some other of such persons is proved, the Court may take that confession into consideration as against:

    A Only the maker of the confession B The complainant only C Such other person as well as the maker D No one, as it is hearsay
16. Question 16 of 100

    A text open to more than one interpretation, thereby allowing juristic difference of opinion, is called:

    A Qat'i (definitive) B Mutawatir only C Zanni (probable/speculative) D Mansukh only
17. Question 17 of 100

    Which section of the CPC defines terms such as 'decree', 'order', 'judgment', and 'mesne profits'?

    A Section 2 B Section 151 C Section 47 D Section 9
18. Question 18 of 100

    The chain of narrators through which a hadith is transmitted is called the:

    A Ijtihad B Matn C Tafsir D Isnad (or Sanad)
19. Question 19 of 100

    Secondary evidence may be given of the contents of a document when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily:

    A Registered B Movable C Understood D Signed
20. Question 20 of 100

    A witness may be asked any question tending to test his veracity, to discover who he is and what is his position in life, or to shake his credit, even though such question may involve matter that is not directly relevant, but the Court has the power to disallow such questions if they are:

    A Related to the offence itself B Reasonably necessary for the purposes stated C Objected to by the complainant only D Indecent, scandalous, or intended merely to insult or annoy
21. Question 21 of 100

    Article 3 provides that evidence may be given in any proceeding of the existence or non-existence of every fact in issue and of such other facts as are declared to be:

    A Relevant B Presumed C Privileged D Conclusive
22. Question 22 of 100

    Under Article 183(1), the permanent seat of the Supreme Court is at:

    A Karachi B Islamabad C Lahore D Rawalpindi
23. Question 23 of 100

    Orders passed under Chapter VIII requiring security are generally subject to:

    A Appeal or revision as provided under the Code B Only a Presidential pardon C Only a Provincial Assembly resolution D No challenge whatsoever
24. Question 24 of 100

    Which jurist is known for the theory of 'social solidarity' as the basis of law?

    A Leon Duguit B Savigny C John Austin D Hans Kelsen
25. Question 25 of 100

    Which body, alongside the ICJ, can request advisory opinions on legal questions within its competence under Article 96(2) of the UN Charter?

    A NGOs with consultative status B Regional organizations automatically C Any individual UN member state D Other UN organs and specialized agencies authorized by the General Assembly
26. Question 26 of 100

    Under Article 180, when the office of Chief Justice (of the Supreme Court) is vacant or the Chief Justice is unable to act, the President appoints which judge to act, per the post-27th Amendment wording?

    A The Attorney-General temporarily B A judge from any High Court C Automatically the most senior judge, with no presidential discretion D One of the other judges of the Supreme Court (not necessarily the most senior)
27. Question 27 of 100

    Under Article 182, an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court may be appointed from a person who has held that office before, provided not more than how many years have elapsed since he ceased to hold it?

    A Three years B Five years C One year D Two years
28. Question 28 of 100

    General search-warrants under Chapter VII are ordinarily addressed to and executed by:

    A A private citizen chosen at random B A police officer named or designated in the warrant C The complainant exclusively D The Sessions Judge personally
29. Question 29 of 100

    A Bar Association formally refuses to comply with an instruction issued by the Pakistan Bar Council. What is this categorized as under Rule 175-B?

    A A matter outside the Bar Council Rules entirely B Gross professional misconduct C Automatic dissolution of the Bar Association D A minor administrative matter with no formal consequence
30. Question 30 of 100

    Under Rule 143, how should junior and younger Bar members conduct themselves toward senior and elder members?

    A Formally only in court proceedings B With no particular deference required C Only when instructed by a client D Always respectfully
31. Question 31 of 100

    Under Order XLI, Rule 27, what is the general rule regarding additional evidence in the appellate court?

    A Parties may freely introduce any additional evidence they choose at the appellate stage B Only documentary evidence may ever be added on appeal, never oral evidence C Parties to an appeal are not entitled to produce additional evidence, whether oral or documentary, except in narrowly defined circumstances D Additional evidence may be introduced only by the respondent, never the appellant
32. Question 32 of 100

    Where a person has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him if he had been alive, the burden of proving that he is alive shifts to the person who:

    A Is a public officer B Denies that he is alive C Affirms that he is alive D Is the investigating officer
33. Question 33 of 100

    Under Rule 174-A, may an advocate use a former designation such as 'Retired Justice' or 'Ex-Judge' during the period of his practice as an advocate?

    A Yes, with the Bar Council's written permission B Yes, on letterheads only C Yes, on visiting cards only D No, in any manner whatsoever, whether as prefix or suffix
34. Question 34 of 100

    Al-Jehad Trust vs. Federation of Pakistan is reported at:

    A PLD 2001 S.C. 607 B PLD 1996 S.C. 324 C PLD 2000 S.C. 869 D PLD 1993 S.C. 473
35. Question 35 of 100

    Section 445 defines 'house-breaking' broadly as committing house-trespass under specified circumstances of effecting entrance, or of quitting, or of remaining concealed, such as by using:

    A Criminal force or, having made a preparation for causing hurt to any person, or having effected entrance through a passage otherwise than the one intended for human entrance B A dying declaration only C A public document D A confession only
36. Question 36 of 100

    Which law was primarily challenged as unconstitutional in the Khan Asfandyar Wali case?

    A The Hudood Ordinance B The Pakistan Penal Code C The National Accountability Bureau (NAB) Ordinance, 1999 D The Anti-Terrorism Act 1997
37. Question 37 of 100

    Under Article 192(1), a High Court consists of a Chief Justice and other judges as determined by:

    A The Provincial Governor B The Chief Justice of the relevant High Court C The Provincial Assembly by resolution D Law, or as fixed by the President until then
38. Question 38 of 100

    What does Section 47 CPC provide regarding questions relating to the execution, discharge, or satisfaction of a decree?

    A They shall be determined by the court executing the decree and not by a separate suit B They must always be raised in a fresh suit C They can only be raised on appeal D They are automatically waived if not raised at trial
39. Question 39 of 100

    What does Section 10 CPC (stay of suit) prevent?

    A A plaintiff from filing a second suit on any matter B A court from proceeding with the trial of a suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties C A defendant from filing a counter-claim D A court from ever hearing more than one suit at a time
40. Question 40 of 100

    Criminal conspiracy to commit a serious offence, such as one punishable with death or imprisonment for life, is complete in law as soon as the:

    A Confession is recorded B FIR is registered C Offence is actually committed D Agreement is made, without requiring any further act
41. Question 41 of 100

    A dying declaration recorded by a Magistrate is generally given greater evidentiary weight than one recorded by a police officer because of the presumed:

    A Requirement of corroboration in every case without exception B Automatic conclusiveness in all circumstances C Absence of investigative bias and greater reliability D Irrelevance of medical evidence
42. Question 42 of 100

    Documents must be proved by primary evidence except in the cases mentioned where:

    A The document is a public document only B The witness is an expert C Secondary evidence may be given D The document is privileged
43. Question 43 of 100

    The general presumption of judicial notice extends to matters such as the seals of courts and public offices in Pakistan, and the accession to office, names, titles and national flags of states, being facts considered:

    A Privileged and inadmissible B So well known as not to require formal proof C Irrelevant to any proceeding D Disputed and requiring formal proof in every case
44. Question 44 of 100

    Under Section 40, the word 'offence' denotes a thing made punishable by the Code, and, in certain chapters, is extended to acts punishable under any:

    A Religious injunction only B Special or local law C Foreign law D Customary practice
45. Question 45 of 100

    Article 37(e) directs the State to make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work, ensuring children and women are not employed in vocations unsuited to their:

    A Age or sex B Religion or caste C Educational qualification D Marital status
46. Question 46 of 100

    No magistrate or police officer shall be compelled to say whence he got information as to the commission of any offence, and no revenue officer shall be compelled to say whence he got information as to the commission of any offence against the public:

    A Revenue B Trust C Order D Peace
47. Question 47 of 100

    Comparing oath-taking: a Federal Shariat Court Chief Justice/Judge takes oath before the President or his nominee (Art. 203C(7)), while a High Court judge takes oath before:

    A The President directly B The Governor of the Province (or his nominee) C The Chief Justice of the Federal Constitutional Court D The Chief Justice of Pakistan
48. Question 48 of 100

    Statements as to a fact of public or general interest, made by persons likely to be aware of the matter and before controversy arose, may be relevant to prove the existence of such:

    A Judgment B Right or custom C Confession D Character
49. Question 49 of 100

    The Court may permit leading questions as to matters which are introductory or undisputed, or which have, in its opinion, already been sufficiently:

    A Objected to by the complainant B Disproved C Withdrawn by the witness D Proved
50. Question 50 of 100

    Duguit rejected the concept of sovereignty and rights, focusing instead on:

    A Social solidarity and social function B Divine natural law C Command of the sovereign D Historical custom
51. Question 51 of 100

    Section 200 requires a Magistrate taking cognizance of an offence on complaint to:

    A Refer the matter automatically to the police for a full investigation in every case B Immediately convict the accused without any hearing C Dismiss the complaint without any examination D Examine the complainant and the witnesses present, upon oath, and reduce the substance of the examination into writing
52. Question 52 of 100

    Which rule addresses the advocate's duty to maintain a respectful attitude toward the Court?

    A Rule 162 B Rule 173 C Rule 159 D Rule 138
53. Question 53 of 100

    Where oral evidence refers to a fact which could be heard, it must be the evidence of a witness who says he:

    A Heard it B Guessed it C Read about it D Was told about it by another witness
54. Question 54 of 100

    A search-warrant under Section 96 is generally issued where the Court believes that a person summoned to produce a document or thing:

    A Will not or is not likely to produce it as required B Has been granted bail C Has already produced it voluntarily D Is a Magistrate himself
55. Question 55 of 100

    The Arabic root of the word 'Ijma' conveys the meaning of:

    A Analogy/comparison B Agreement/gathering together on a matter C Blocking of means D Preference/selection
56. Question 56 of 100

    Evidence of a custom or usage which would render a document illegal is generally:

    A Admissible under all circumstances B Conclusive proof of the custom C Not admissible D Irrelevant to the exclusionary rule
57. Question 57 of 100

    The term 'investigation' under the Cr.P.C. is broader than mere arrest, and includes activities such as:

    A Only the framing of the final charge by the court B Only the hearing of an appeal C Examination of witnesses, collection of evidence and search and seizure D Only the pronouncement of judgment
58. Question 58 of 100

    Under Rule 175(1), may an advocate be an active partner or salaried official of a Government, semi-Government, or autonomous body while practising?

    A No B Yes, if the role is unpaid C Yes, provided it is disclosed to the Bar Council D Yes, in an advisory capacity only
59. Question 59 of 100

    Which section of the CPC provides that questions relating to execution of a decree are to be decided by the executing court, not a fresh suit?

    A Section 115 B Section 47 C Section 104 D Section 96
60. Question 60 of 100

    Under the current Article 58(2), the President may dissolve the National Assembly in his discretion in which specific scenario?

    A On request of the Senate Chairman B Where a vote of no-confidence has passed against the PM and no other member commands majority confidence C On the advice of the Chief Justice D Whenever he disagrees with government policy
61. Question 61 of 100

    If a person fails to comply with a conditional order made absolute under Chapter X, the Magistrate may:

    A Automatically compound the offence B Take no further action of any kind C Refer the matter to the High Court in every case as a matter of course D Enforce compliance and may also proceed against the person for the disobedience
62. Question 62 of 100

    Where the original of a document is admitted or not disputed by the opposite party, courts have generally allowed reliance on a copy on the basis of such:

    A Estoppel by conduct B Judicial notice alone C Presumption of forgery D Admission or non-denial
63. Question 63 of 100

    Which Order of the CPC governs appeals from orders (as distinct from decrees)?

    A Order VII B Order XLI C Order XXXIX D Order XLIII
64. Question 64 of 100

    Section 319 provides that whoever commits qatl-i-khata is liable to diyat, and may also be punished with:

    A Only compensation to the Government B Ta'zir, of either description, for a term which may extend to five years, as tazir C No punishment whatsoever D Death as qisas
65. Question 65 of 100

    Which UN Charter chapter deals with non-self-governing territories?

    A Chapter XIII B Chapter X C Chapter XII D Chapter XI
66. Question 66 of 100

    Under Section 9 CPC, what suits shall courts have jurisdiction to try?

    A All suits of a civil nature, except those whose cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred B Only suits involving immovable property C Only suits below a certain pecuniary value D Only suits between citizens of Pakistan
67. Question 67 of 100

    Under Section 20 CPC's illustrations, if a seller in one city delivers goods to a carrier for a buyer in another city, where may the seller sue for the price?

    A Only in the seller's home court, regardless of other factors B At the plaintiff's option, either where the cause of action arose or where the defendant carries on business C Only where the goods were manufactured D Only in the buyer's home court
68. Question 68 of 100

    Section 160 empowers a police officer investigating a case to:

    A Convict a witness for non-appearance without any process B Require the attendance of any person acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case C Grant bail to the accused D Dismiss the FIR outright
69. Question 69 of 100

    Under Section 497, bail in a non-bailable offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life is generally refused where there appear to be:

    A Only technical defects in the FIR B Only a delay in filing the charge-sheet C No grounds whatsoever, as bail must always be granted regardless D Reasonable grounds for believing that the accused has been guilty of such an offence
70. Question 70 of 100

    Holmes is often quoted as saying law should be viewed through the eyes of the:

    A Historical jurist B 'Bad man' who only cares about consequences C Sovereign ruler D Ideal moral citizen
71. Question 71 of 100

    On what jurisprudential ground did the Court reject Kelsen's theory as applied in Dosso?

    A Kelsen's theory was never written in English B Kelsen was not a recognized jurist C Kelsen's theory was a descriptive theory about legal validity, not intended to justify or legitimize usurpation as morally or legally correct D Kelsen's theory only applied to civil law countries
72. Question 72 of 100

    An advocate also works as a salaried manager at a private company while continuing to practise law. Which rule does this violate?

    A No rule; secondary employment is unrestricted B Rule 172 alone C Rule 175(1), which prohibits an advocate from being an active partner or salaried official of any organisation, public or private, while practising D Rule 154
73. Question 73 of 100

    What major political event had occurred shortly before the Supreme Court decided the Dosso case?

    A Iskander Mirza's imposition of martial law and abrogation of the 1956 Constitution B The dissolution of the Constituent Assembly C The 1965 war with India D The separation of East Pakistan
74. Question 74 of 100

    When did the United Nations Charter come into force?

    A 26 June 1945 B 10 January 1946 C 24 October 1945 D 30 October 1945
75. Question 75 of 100

    Asma Jilani's case was heard alongside another similar petition. Who was the petitioner in that companion case?

    A Zarina Gillani B Benazir Bhutto C Begum Nusrat Bhutto D Shahida Jabeen
76. Question 76 of 100

    Estoppel by conduct requires that the person estopped made a representation of fact, intending it to be acted upon, and that the other party acted upon it to his prejudice, being distinct from estoppel arising from a:

    A Confession of guilt B Dying declaration C Court's own judgment D Public document only
77. Question 77 of 100

    Why is the status quo, rather than a final determination of rights, the central concern of Order XXXIX proceedings?

    A Because status quo has no legal significance in interim relief B Because Order XXXIX only applies after a final decree has already been passed C Because Order XXXIX proceedings are themselves final and binding on the merits D Because a temporary injunction is an interim measure meant to prevent the subject-matter of the suit from being altered or lost before the case can be finally heard on its merits
78. Question 78 of 100

    Under Section 2 CPC, is an adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order included within the definition of 'decree'?

    A No, it is expressly excluded B Yes, but only for money decrees C Yes, but only in the High Court's original jurisdiction D Yes, always
79. Question 79 of 100

    Under Order VIII, if a defendant fails to specifically deny an allegation in the plaint, what is the general legal effect?

    A The allegation may be taken as admitted B The plaintiff must prove the allegation regardless C The suit is automatically stayed D The allegation is automatically struck from the record
80. Question 80 of 100

    Under Order IX, Rule 5, what happens if, after summons is returned unserved, the plaintiff fails for the prescribed period to apply for fresh summons?

    A The court must proceed ex parte automatically B The court may dismiss the suit against the defendant who was not served C The suit is automatically transferred to another court D The defendant is deemed to have admitted the claim
81. Question 81 of 100

    Under Order VIII, must a defendant's denial of an allegation be specific, or is a general denial sufficient?

    A A specific denial is required; a general or evasive denial is generally not sufficient B Only a sworn affidavit denying the claim in its entirety is accepted C No denial of any kind is legally required D A general denial is always sufficient
82. Question 82 of 100

    Under Article 37(a), the State shall promote, with special care, the educational and economic interests of which groups?

    A Only urban populations B Only military families C Backward classes or areas D Only government employees
83. Question 83 of 100

    Mischief by injury to works of irrigation, or by wrongfully diverting water, is separately dealt with under specific provisions, reflecting the importance attached by the Code to:

    A Agricultural and irrigation interests B Purely political interests only C Purely commercial interests only D Purely religious interests only
84. Question 84 of 100

    Which UN General Assembly Resolution is known as the 'Declaration on Principles of International Law concerning Friendly Relations' (1970)?

    A Resolution 2625 (XXV) B Resolution 1514 (XV) C Resolution 3314 (XXIX) D Resolution 377 (V)
85. Question 85 of 100

    Where the prosecution proves the basic facts constituting an offence, the burden may shift to the accused to explain circumstances especially within his knowledge, but this does not relieve the prosecution of proving the:

    A Motive conclusively in every case B Character of the accused C Accused's defence D Foundational facts of the offence beyond reasonable doubt
86. Question 86 of 100

    An advocate is asked by his client to threaten and berate the opposing party during proceedings. May the advocate comply, citing the client's instructions?

    A Yes, if the opposing party is unrepresented B No — Rule 169 makes clear the client cannot be the keeper of the advocate's conscience and has no right to demand abusive or offensive conduct C Yes, provided the client insists in writing D Yes, if the case is high-value
87. Question 87 of 100

    Under Section 20 CPC, in what court may a suit generally be instituted, subject to other provisions?

    A Only in the provincial capital B Only in the court that first accepts the case C A court within whose local limits the defendant resides, carries on business, or personally works for gain, or where the cause of action wholly or partly arises D Only where the plaintiff resides
88. Question 88 of 100

    According to Austin, laws properly so called are species of:

    A Customs B Morals C Commands D Treaties
89. Question 89 of 100

    Section 425 defines 'mischief' as causing destruction of property, or a change in property, or in its situation, that destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously, with intent to cause, or knowledge that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the:

    A Investigating officer only B Government exclusively C Public or to any person D Complainant's family exclusively
90. Question 90 of 100

    The main difference between Shari'a and Fiqh is that Shari'a is divine and immutable while Fiqh is:

    A Only found in the Quran B Restricted to worship (ibadat) only C Also divine and immutable D Human juristic interpretation/understanding, and therefore subject to difference of opinion
91. Question 91 of 100

    What does Order I of the CPC deal with?

    A Pleadings generally B The frame of a suit C Parties to suits D Institution of suits
92. Question 92 of 100

    Section 84 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either:

    A Public or private B Illegal or immoral C Wrong or contrary to law D Profitable or unprofitable
93. Question 93 of 100

    Under Rule 151, may an advocate advise the commencement of prosecution or defence of a case without having been consulted in reference to it?

    A Yes, freely and without restriction B Yes, but only pro bono C Generally no, except where his relation to a party or the subject-matter makes it proper D Yes, but only in criminal matters
94. Question 94 of 100

    Which rule fixes the maximum size of an advocate's office name board?

    A Rule 174-B B Rule 174-A C Rule 174 D Rule 173
95. Question 95 of 100

    Under Chapter XXXI, an appellate court has the power to enhance a sentence in appropriate cases, but this generally requires that the accused be given:

    A Only a written apology with no hearing B Notice and an opportunity to show cause against such enhancement C Automatic consent, deemed given by law D No notice whatsoever
96. Question 96 of 100

    A confession, to be relevant and usable, must relate to the:

    A Character of the accused generally B Facts in issue or relevant facts of the offence charged C Civil liability of a third party D Procedure of arrest only
97. Question 97 of 100

    Section 405 defines 'criminal breach of trust' as occurring when a person, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, in violation of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be:

    A Compounded B Registered C Confessed D Discharged
98. Question 98 of 100

    Burden of proof provisions apply equally in civil and criminal matters, though the standard of proof differs, being 'beyond reasonable doubt' in criminal cases and 'preponderance of:

    A Probability' in civil cases B Custom' in civil cases C Character' in civil cases D Motive' in civil cases
99. Question 99 of 100

    According to Salmond, a 'right' necessarily has how many essential elements, including the person of inherence and the person of incidence?

    A One B Two C Ten D Five
100. Question 100 of 100

     How many permanent members does the UN Security Council have?

     A 10 B 6 C 5 D 7

You can practise as a guest, but sign in to save your score and track your progress.